يسلمك ألهي 
الأسئلة ذي بالعربي 
الي يجينا كل أبوها أنقليش 
بعدين المقالي حلو 
يمديكي تألفين وتضيفين كم معلومه 
أن شاء الله لا ختبرت
وجيت بحاول اذكر لكم بعض الأسئلة
ووأن شاء الله أطلع منها وأنا ناسي
أغنية اهلا أهلا بالعيد مرحب مرحب بالعيد 
طبعا هذي نماذج للأختبارات التخصصات
للمختبرات أن شاء الله تستفيدوا منها
HEMATOLOGY
1- Vitamin K antagonist :
a- warfarin
b- Heparin
c- Protein C
d- Antithrombin III
2- One of the intrinsic pathway
a- factor XI
b- factor XIII
c- factor I
d- factor VII
3- Para hemophilia is the deficiency of
a- factor VIII
b- factor IX
c- factor V
d- factor VII
4- Eosinophilia is seen in :
a- food sensitivity
b- Drug sensitivity
c- Atopic dermatitis
d- all of the above
5- Multiple myeloma is a neoplastic proliferation of:
a- lymphocytes
b- Granulocytes
c- Plasma cells
d- Monocytes
6- Test for intrinsic pathway:
a- bleeding time
b- Thrombin time
c- Prothrombin time
d- Partial thromboplastin time PTT
7- Paul-Bunnel test is done to diagnose:
a- multiple myeloma
b- Hodgkin’s disease
c- Infectious mononucleosis
d- all of the above
8- increased platelet count is :
a- thrombocytopenia
b- thrombopoietin
c- thrombocytosis
d- all of the above
9- Decreased platelet count is:
a- thrombocytopenia
b- Thrombopoietin
c- Thrombocytosis
d- all of the above
10- All these are causes of thrombocytopenia except:
a- cytotoxic *****
b- Aplastic anemia
c- Hemorrhage
d- Radiotherapy
11- Prothrombin time is done to test:
a- Intrinsic pathway only
b- Extrinsic pathway only
c- Extrinsic and common pathways
d- Intrinsic and common pathways
12- Normal bleeding time by Duke’s method:
a- 2-7 minutes
b- 2-7 seconds
c- 2-4 minutes
d- 2-4 seconds
13- Normal partial thromboplastin time (PPT) is :
a- 3-4 minutes
b- 30-45 seconds
c- 12-15 seconds
d- 12-15 minutes
14- Hemophilia A is the deficiency of :
a- factor V
b- factor VIII
c- factor IX
d- all of the above
15-the most common form of leukemia in children is:
a- acute lymphoblastic leukemia
b- Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
c- Acute myeloid leukemia
d- Chronic myeloid leukemia
16- Bence-Jones protein is present in cases of:
a- chronic myeloid myeloma
b-acute myeloid myeloma
c- Hodgkin’s lymphoma
d- multiple myeloma
17- Reed-Sternberg cells are found in cases of :
a- acute lymphoblastic leukemia
b- Non Hodgkin’s lymphoma
c- Hodgkin’s lymphoma
d- Multiple myeloma
18- Normal platelet count is :
a- 150,000 to 450,000/min3
b- 400,000 to 800,000/min3
c- 4,000 to 11,000 /min3
d- 50,000 to 100,000/min3
19- Antithrombin III inhibits:
a- factor Va
b- factor VIIIa
c- factor Xa
d- all of the above
20- Heparin potentiate the action of :
a- protein C
b- protein S
c- antithrombin III
d- warfarin
21- Factor II of ***** clotting is:
a- Christmas factor
b- Fibrinogen
c- Prothrombin
d- Thromboplastin
22- One of fibrinogen group is : I V VIII XIII
a- II
b- V
c- VII
d- IX
23- Fibrinogen is converted to soluble fibrin by:
a- prothrombin
b- Thromboplastin
c- Thrombin
d- all of the above
24- Thrombopoitin control the formation of:
a- red ***** cells
b- White ***** cells
c- platelets
d- non of the above
25- Normal prothrombin time (PT) is:
a- 30-45 seconds
b- 30-45 minutes
c- 12-15 seconds
d- 12-15 minutes
26- Parasitic disease is associated with:
a- monocytosis - bacteria
b- Lymphocytosis - virus
c- Basophilia - sensitive
d- Eosinophilia
27- Philadelphia chromosome is diagnostic for:
a- acute lymphoblastic leukemia
b- Acute myeloid leukemia
c- Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
d- chronic myeloid leukemia
28- Normal fibrinogen level:
a- 150-400 gm%
b- 150-400 mg %
c- 15-40 mg %
d- 15-40 gm %
29-infectious mononucleosis is caused by:
a- echo virus
b- coxsaki virus
c- Epstein Barr virus EBV
d- Cytomegalo virus
30- Atypical lymphocytosis is seen in cases of:
a- Hodgkin’s lymphoma
b- Multiple myeloma
c- Infectious mononucleosis
d- Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
31-monospot test is done to diagnose:
a- Acute myeloid leukemia
b- Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
c- Infectious mononucleosis
d- Infectious lymphocytosis
32- The test which depend on ***** platelets & capillary fragility is:
a- prothrombin time
b- Thrombin time
c- Bleeding time
d- Clotting time
33- Fibrin is broken to fibrin degradation products by the action of:
a- Prothrombin
b- Thrombin
c- Plasminogen
d- Plasmin
34- Acute myeloid leukemia is characterized by:
a- low neutrophil alkaline phosphatase
b- Myeloblast with Auer rods
c- Neutrophil with Pleger-Huet ano****
d- all of the above
35- Plasminogen is converted to plasmin by :
a- Heparin
b-Histamine
c- Urokinase
d- Serotonin
36- Increase D-dimers and fibrin degradation products are seen in cases of:
a- Hemophilia A
b- Vitamin K deficiency
c- Diffuse intravascular coagulation
d- Von Willebrand disease
37- Activated protein C degrades:
a- factor IXa
b- Factor VIIIa
c- Factor Xa
d- Factor Xia
38- Heparin is found in
a- Neutrophil
b- Basophil
c- Acidophil
d- all of the above
39- In hemophilia A the test which will be prolonged is
a- PT
b- PTT
c- Bleeding time
d- all of the above
40- Bleeding due to overdose of heparin is managed by giving:
a- Vit K
b- Vit C
c- Vit A
d- Protamin sulphate
41- Streptokinase and staphylokinase convert:
a- Prothrombin to thrombin
b- Fibrinogen to fibrin
c- Soluble fibrin to insoluble fibrin
d- Plasminogen to plasmin
42- Test for platelet **********
a- Clot retraction
b- Platelet aggregation
c- Platelet adhesion
d- all of the above
43- Prolonged PT occurs in cases of deficiency of:
a- Factor III
b- Factor IV
c- Factor V
d- all of the above
44- normal thrombin time (TT):
a- 30-45 sec
b- 2-4 min
c- 3-9 min
d- 10-20 sec
45- cause of vitamin K deficiency:
a- Obstructive jaundice
b- Prolonged use of antibiotics
c- Inadequate intake
d- all of the above
46- Cause of Hyper- Coagulable state:
a- Aplastic anemia
b- Cytotxic *****
c- Polcythemia
d- Radiotherapy
47-Physiological cause of neutrophilia:
a- New born
b- Radiotherapy
c- Cytotoxic *****
d- Prolonged use of antibiotics
48- Leucocytosis characterized by the presence of immature cells and high neutrophil alkaline phosphatase:
a- chronic myeloid leukemia
b- Acute myeloid leukemia
c- Leukaemid reaction
d- non of the above
49- Normal coagulation time (CT):
a- 3-9 min
b- 3-9 sec
c- 30-40 sec
d- 30-40 min
50- The test which measures the clotting time of citrated plasma accelerated by the addition of a clotting factor activator (kaolin) , phospholipids and calcium:
a- coagulation time
b- Prothrombin time
c- Partial thromboplastin time
d- Thrombin time
51- The test which measures the clotting time of citrated plasma to which thromboplastin and calcium has been added:
a- thrombin time
b- Prothrombin time
c- Coagulation time
d- Partial thromboplastin time
52- The test which is widely used as a control and follow up test to control anticoagulant treatment:
a- APTT
b- PTT
c- PT
d- TT
53- A disease characterized by progressive neoplastic proliferation of immature white cell precursor:
a- acute leukemia
b- Chronic leukemia
c- Lymphoma
d- Multiple myeloma
54- The absolute lymphocyte count may be up to 300,000 or more between 70 and 90 % of white cells in the ***** film appear as s**** lymphocytes . THE CASE IS:
a- Acute myeloid leukemia
b- Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
c- Chronic myeloid leukemia
d- Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
55- Variation in red cells size:
a- Poikilcytosis
b- Anisocytosis
c- Reticulocytosis
d- Leukocytosis
56- Dark red cells with no area of central pallor:
a- Stomatocyte
b- Spherocyte
c- Acathocyte
d- Schistocyte
57- Microcytic hypochromic anemia
a- hereditary spherocytosis
b- Sickle cell anemia
c- Iron deficiency anemia
d- Vit B12 deficiency anemia
58- Target cells are seen in cases of:
a- folic acid deficiency
b- Iron deficiency anemia
c- Vit B12 deficiency anemia
d- Thalassemia
59- Red cells with elongated area of central pallor:
a- spherocyte
b- Schistocyte
c- Stomatocyte
d- Elliptocutes
60- ……………….. Symmetric, short , sharp projection from the red cells and seen in iron deficiency anemia:
a- echinocyte
b- Acanthocyte
c- Elliptocyte
d- Ovalocyte
61- ……………… is a condition in which the absorption of vit B12 is greatly impaired due to failure or marked reduction of intrinsic factor secretion:
a- fauvism
b- fanconi’s anemia
c-sickle cell anemia
d- thalassemia
e- pernicious anemia
62- Hyperchromic cells are seen in:
a- iron deficiency anemia
b- Thalassemia
c- Hereditary spherocytosis
d- Sickle cell anemia
63- A prolonged low rate of bleeding results in:
a- normochromic anemia
b- Hypochromic anemia
c- Hyperchromic anemia
d- non of the above
64- Schilling test is done in diagnosis of:
a- iron deficiency anemia
b- Pernicious anemia
c- Aplastic anemia
d- folic acid deficiency
65- Defective synthesis of either alpha or beta chains of normal hemoglobin
cause:
a- sickle cell anemia
b- Aplastic anemia
c- Pernicious anemia
d- Thalassemia
66- Neutrophils represent…………… of circulating leukocyte:
a- 2-8 %
b- 0-1 %
c- 50-70 %
d- 2-4 %
67- …………. are non nucleated, biconcave shaped cells:
a- platelet
b- Leukocyte
c- Erythrocyte
d- Macrophages
68- …………….. represent 50-70 % of total leukocytes
a- lymphocytes
b- Neutrophils
c- Monocytes
d- Eosinophilis
69- …………… have a characteristic biffed nucleus and their cytoplasm is filled with large refractile granules that stain red in ***** smear
a- neutrophils
b- Eosinophilis
c- Basophiles
d- Lymphocytes
70- The cell which is responsible for antibody production is:
a- moncytes
b- T-lymphocytes
c- B-lymphocytes = plasma cell
d- Neutrophils
71- …… is a curved cell with sharp ends seen in haemoglobinopathies (HBS)
a- sickle cell
b- Spherocyte
c- Ovalocyte
d- Stomatocyte
72- All of the following is correct about sickle cell anemia except:
a- leg ulcers
b- Gall stones
c- Enlargement of spleen
d- Attacks of pain
73- ……….. is a single, large, rounded , dark , purple remnant of nucleus
a- Heinz body
b- Howeel-Jolly body
c- Pappenheimer body
d- Cabot ring
74- Agranulocyte:
a- neutrophil
b- Lymphocyte
c- Basophile
d- Eosinophil
75- Pica ( craving to eat unusual substance such as clay or ice) is one of the symptoms of:
a- G6PD deficiency
b- Thalassemia
c- Megaloblastic anemia
d- Iron deficiency anemia
76- In …………….. there’s a decreased or absent hemosiderin in bone marrow
a- sideroblastic anemia
b- Iron deficiency anemia
c- Megaloblastic anemia
d- Hemolytic anemia
77- Chloramphenicol may cause …………. anemia in long term therapy
a- iron deficiency
b- Vit B12 deficiency
c- folic acid deficiency
d- Aplastic anemia
78- ………. is the fluid (with anticoagulant) component of ***** , it contains salt & organic compounds:
a- plasma
b- Serum
c- Hemoglobin
d- Billirubin
79- Poikilocytosis is:
a- variation in red cell size
b- Variation in red cell color
c- Variation in red cell shape
d- non of the above
80- Red cell fragments:
a- echinocyte
b- Elliptocyte
c- Schistocyte
d- Stomatocyte
81- It is a defect of red cell member
a- Thalassemia
b- Sickle cell anemia
c- Hereditary spherocytosis
d- Megaloblastic anemia
82- All of the following is correct regarding spherocytosis except:
a- normocytic normochromic anemia
b- Decreased reticulocyte count
c- Raised plasma bilirubin
d- Increased osmotic fragility
83- Heinz bodies are seen in cases of
a- hereditary spherocytosis
b- Hereditary elliplocytosis
c- G6PD deficiency
d- sickle cell anemia
84- ……………… is caused by substitution of amino acid (valine) instead of glutamic acid at position No.#6 in the beta chain of hemoglobin
a- Hb-A
b- Hb-A2
c- Hb –F
d- Hb –S sickle cell
85- Atrophy of the spleen is seen in cases of:
a- Thalassemia
b- Sickle cell anemia
c- G6PD deficiency
d- Hereditary elliplocytosis
86- iron deficiency lead to :
a- normocytic normochromic anemia
b- microcytic hypochromic anemia
c- macrocytic anemia
d- hemolytic anemia
87- Neurological symptoms are seen in cases of:
a- iron deficiency anemia
b- folic acid deficiency
c- Vit B12 deficiency
d- all of the above
88- Megaloplastic hematopoiesis is seen in cases of:
a- iron deficiency anemia
b- folic acid deficiency
c- Vit B12 deficiency
d- Vit C deficiency
89- Fanconi’s anemia is a type of :
a - vit B12 deficiency
b- aplastic anemia
c- Thalassemia
d- folic acid deficiency anemia
90- the most abundant leukocyte in a normal ***** smear of adult is :
a- lymphocyte
b- Monocyte
c- Eosinophil
d- Neutrophil
91- The first line of defense against parasites:
a- neutrophils
b- Basophile
c- Eosinophil
d- Lymphocyte
92- …………….. play a role in immediate and delayed hypersensitivity:
a- monocyte
b- Lymphocyte
c- Eosinophil
d- Basophile
93- The largest leukocyte is :
a- neutrophils
b- Lymphocyte
c- Monocyte
d- Basophile
94- Cell which participate in cell mediated immunity:
a- monocyte
b- B- lymphocyte
c- T- lymphocyte
d- neutrophils
95- ……… promotes ***** clotting and help to prevent ***** loss from damaged ***** vessels:
a- platelets
b- WBCs
c- RBCs
d- all of the above
96-antibody induced hemolytic disease in new born that is caused by ***** group incompatibility between mother and fetus:
a- hemolytic uremic syndrome
b- Erythroblastosis fetalis
c- Hereditary spherocytosis
d- Thromboloc thrombocytopenic purpurea
97- Young red ***** cell with cytoplasmic RNA:
a- spherocyte
b- Reticulocyte
c- Stomatocyte
d- elliptocyte
98- Normal adult hemoglobin tetramer is:
a- 2 alpha : 2 gama
b- 2 alpha : 2 beta
c- 2 alpha : 2 delta
d- 2 beta : 2 gama
99- …………… represent 2-4 % of total leukocyte:
a- neutrophils
b- Basophile
c- Eosinophil
d- Monocyte
100- ………… are s**** cytoplasmic fragment derived from megakaryocytic:
a- RBCs
b- WBCs
c- Platelet
d- non of the above
101 - ………….. is the reduction in the amount of circulating hemoglobin , red ***** cells or both:
a- polycythemia
b- Anemia
c- Hemophilia
d- Leucopenia
102- Thalassemia is :
a- microcytic anemia
b- Macrocytic anemia
c- Normocytic anemia
d- non of the above
103- Vit B12 deficiency lead to :
a- hemolytic anemia
b- Microcytic anemia
c- Normocytic anemia
d- Megaloblastic anemia
104- Lymphocyte represent ………….. of total leukocyte:
a- 20-40 %
b- 50-70 %
c- 2-8 %
d- 1-5 %
105- Plumer- Vinson syndrome may be seen in cases of:
a- iron deficiency anemia
b- Vit B12 deficiency anemia
c- Aplastic anemia
d- folic acid deficiency anemia
106- peripheral, pale inclusions that push out the cell membrane and composed of hemoglobin:
a- cabot ring
b- Pappenheimer body
c- Howell-Jolly body
d- Heinz body
107- it’s an acute hemolytic anemia occurring after the ingestion of broad bean in individual with deficiency of G6PD :
a-thalassemia
b- Favism
c- Fanconi’s anemia
d- Cooley’s anemia
108-………………. is a multiple s**** , peripheral grape like purple clusters of iron:
a- cabot ring
b- Heinz body
c- Howell-Jolly body
d- Pappenheimer body
109- the ***** smear gives the physician information concerning:
a- morphology of RBCs and platelet
b- Presence of abnormal inclusion
c- Presence of immature cells
d- all of the above
110- hypersplenism is one of the causes of :
a- iron deficiency anemia
b- Hemolytic anemia
c- Aplastic anemia
d- Megaloblastic anemia
111- Increased reticulocytes count is seen in cases of:
a- hereditary spherocytosis
b- G6PD deficiency
c- Sickle cell anemia
d- all of the above
112- The antibody which can pass the placenta:
a- Ig M
b- Ig G
c- Ig D
d- Ig E
113- ……… is an autoimmune disease in which there is an immune destruction of the acid and pepsin secreating cells of the stomach:
a- fanconi’s anemia
b- cooley’s anemia
c-pernicious anemia
d- non of the above
114- All of these are laboratory features of aplastic anemia except:
a- pancytopenia
b-markedly hypocellular marrow
c- Increased reticulocyte count
d- Markedly increase in serum erythropoietin
115- Secondary granules of neutrophils contain:
a- elastase
b- Myeloperoxidase
c- Lysozyme
d- Histamine
116- Monocytes represent ………………. of total leukocyte:
a- 0-1 %
b- 2-4 %
c- 2-8 %
d- 20-4 %
117- the reagent used for leukocyte count is :
a- citric acid
b- Acetic acid
c- Hydrochloric acid
d- Sulphoric acid
BACTERIOLOGY
118- All are Prokaryotic cells except:
a- Fungi
b- Bacteria
c - Chlamydia
d- ***oplasma
119- Viruses:
a- Contain only DNA or RNA
b - They Contain ribosome
c- Did not affected by antibiotics
d- a+c
120- All of these are essential structure except:
a- Nuclear body
b- Spores
c- Cell wall
d- Plasma Membrane
121- ________ is giving the shape to the bacteria
a.- Cytoplasmic Membrane
b- Capsule
c- Cell Wall
d- All of the above
122- One of its functions is selective permeability
a- Cell wall
b- Plasma membrane
c- Capsule
d- Spores
123- They are responsible for Haemagglutination Phenomenon
a- Flagella
b- Fimbria
c- Capsule
d- Cell wall
124- Clostridium Tetani is:
a- Atrichous bacteria
b- Mono-trichous bacteria
c- Amphi-trichous bacteria
d- Peri-trichous bacteria
125- Short curved or straight rods, motile by single polar flagellum
a- spirochaeta
b- Vibrio
c- Escherichia
d- Lactobacillus
126- S**** gram negative cocci, occur in pairs
a- staphylococcus
b- streptococcus
c- neisseria
d- non of the above
127- Transfer of genetic information from one bacterium to another by
bacteriophages is:
a. Transformation
b. Tansduction
c. Conjugation
d. Mutation
128- Salmonella are:
a- Obligatory Aerobic bacteria
b.- Obligatory Anaerobic bacteria
c- Facultative Anaerobic bacteria
d- Micro-aerophilic bacteria
129- According to pH, vibrio cholera is
a- Osmophilic bacteria
b- Basophilic bacteria
c- Acidophilic bacteria
d- Neutrophilic bacteria
130- Staphylococci are:
a- Atrichous bacteria
b- Mono-trichous bacteria
c- Amphi-trichous bacteria
d- Peri-trichous bacteria
131- During replication of DNA, copying errors may occur and this is called
a- Conjugation
b- Transduction
c- Transformation
d- Mutation
132- Obligatory Anaerobic bacteria
a- grow only in presence of oxygen
b- grow only in absence of oxygen
c- grow either in presence or absence of oxygen
d- grow in presence of oxygen traces and 5 – 10% CO2
133- Neutrophilic bacteria grow well at
a- pH 8.5 – 9.0
b- pH 7.2 – 7.4
c- pH 5.0 – 5.5
d- pH 2.5 – 3.0
134- The rate of cell death increase and bacterial growth stopped, this is
a- Adaptation phase
b- Exponential phase .
c- Stationary phase.
d- Decline Phase
135- Beta-hemolytic
a- Cause complete hemolysis of RBC’s
b- Cause chemical change of Hemoglobin in RBC’s
c- Do not cause hemolysis
d- None of them
146- Mesophilic bacteria grow at:
a- 37°C
b- 14°C
c- 60°C
d- 120°C
137- Circulation of Bacteria and its toxins in *****
a- Pyaemia
b- Toxemia
c.- Bacteremia - without toxins
d- Septicemia
138- Disinfections that applied on living or injured tissues:
a- Sterilization
b- Antiseptic
c- Sanitation
d- Decontamination
139- Hot air oven is used for sterilization of
a- Glass
b- Rubber Gloves
c.- Plastic Syringes
d- Catheters
140- Disinfectant for superficial fungal infection
a- Phenol
b- Potassium permanganate
c- Chlorine
d- Hypochlorite compounds
141- Rifampin
a- inhibit cell wall synthesis
b- inhibit protein synthesis
c- inhibit folic acid pathway
d- inhibit mRNA synthesis
142- Transacetylase inactivate
a- aminoglycosides
b- chloramphenicol
c- penicillin
d- cephalosporins
143- The color of gram positive bacteria is
a- Yellow
b- Black.
c- Pink
d- Violet
144- Selective media for fungi
a- ***** agar
b- Mac Conkey agar
c- Nutrient agar
d- Sabourand’s dextrose agar
145- Histoplasma is a :
a- Systemic ***osis
b- Sub – Cutaneous ***osis
c- Cutaneous ***osis
d- Superficial ***osis
146- All are asexual spores produced by mould except
a- Conidio – spores
b- Sporangio – spores
c- Endospores
d- Arthro – spores
147- They reproduce only by Asexual reproduction
a- Blasto***osis
b- Deutro***osis
c- Asco***etes
d- Zygo***etes
148- The functions of cell wall is all of the following except:
a- Giving the shape to the bacteria
b- Carrying somatic antigen
c-Selective permeability& transport of solutes = plasma membrane
d- Protect the bacteria from plasmolysis
149- Atrichous Bacteria are:
a- Bacteria contain one flagellum
b- Bacteria contain 2 flagella
c- Bacteria without flagella
d- Bacteria with a tuft of flagella
150-__________ are essential for host cell attachment:
a- Flagella
b- Fimbria
c- Spores
d- Capsules
151- Irregular clusters of spherical cells:
a- Streptococcus
b- Staphylococcus
c- Lactobacillus
d- Escherichia
152- Clostridium Botulinum is:
a- Obligatory Aerobic Bacteria
b- Facultative Anaerobic Bacteria
c- Obligatory Anaerobic Bacteria
d- Micro- aerophilic Bacteria
153- Basophilic Bacteria grow well at:
a- pH 8.5 – 9.0
b- pH 7.2 – 7.4
c- pH 5.0 – 5.5
d- None of the above
154- Cells are divided at high & constant rate:
a- Decline Phase
b- Stationary Phase
c- Log Exponential Phase
d- Adaptation Phase
155- The dominant bacterial species in dental plaque are:
a- Coagulase Negative Staphylococci
b- Lactobacillus
c- Bacteroides
d- Streptococcus Sanguis
156- The spread of Pyogenic Bacteria in ***** stream to different organs & produce multiple abscess is:
a- Septicemia
b- Bacteremia
c-Toxemia
d- Pyaemia
157- Inhibit the growth of micro organisms
a- Bacteriostatic
b- Bactericidal
c- Fungicidal
d- Germicidal
158- To sterilize fluid damaged by heat:
a- Gaseous Sterilization
b- Heat Sterilization
c- Filtration
d- Ionizing Radiation
159- For water disinfection we use:
a- Hydrogen peroxide
b- Formaldehyde
c- Chlorine
d- Hypochlorite compounds
160- Mechanism of action of penicillin:
a- Block peptidoglycan synthesis
b- Inhibit peptidyglycan cross – linking
c- inhibit folic acid pathway
d- inhibit protein synthesis
161- Sulfonamides:
a- inhibit cell wall synthesis
b- inhibit protein synthesis
c- inhibit DNA synthesis
d- inhibit folic acid pathway
162- Acetylase inactivates:
a- B – Lactam antibiotics
b- Aminoglycosides
c- Cloramphenicol
d- All of the above
163- Ringworm disease is caused by
a- Zygo***etes
b- Asco***etes
c- Blasto***osis
d- None of the above
164- For wet – mount technique we add:
a- NaoH
b- K oH
c- H2 O2
d- All of the above
165- They are transmitted by arthropods
a- Chlamydia
b- Spirochetes
c- ***oplasma
d- All of the above
166- In the past they were listed as large viruses
a- Richettsia
b- ***oplasma
c- Chlamydia
d- None of the above
167- Bacteria multiply by:
a- Replication cycle
b- Simple binary fission
c- Sexual reproduction
d- All of the above
168- It protects bacteria from antibiotics
a- Capsule
b- Cell membrane
c- Flagella
d- Fimbria
169- Vibro cholera is:
a- Mono –trichous bacteria
b- Atrichous bacteria
c- Lopho-trichous bacteria
d- Peri-trichous bacteria
170- Short rods, motile by peritrichous flagella
a- Spirochaeta
b- Lactobacillus
c- Escherichia coli
d- Vibrio
171- To take up soluble DNA fragments derived from other, closely related species is:
a. Mutation
b. Transformation
c. Transduction
d. Conjugation
172- T****culosis are
a- micro-airophilic
b- Facultative anaerobic
c- Obligatory anaerobic
d- Obligatory aerobic
173- According to pH, Lactobacillus is
a- Neutrophlic bacteria
b- Acidophilic bacteria
c- Basophilic bacteria
d- None of the above
174- Bacteria without cell Wall
a- Chlamydia
b- Rickettsia
c- ***oplasma
d.- Spirochetes
175- Brucella Melitensis is
a- Obligatory aerobic bacteria
b- Obligatory anaerobic bacteria
c- Facultative anaerobic bacteria
d- Micro-aerophilic bacteria
176- Pseudomonas aeroginosa is
a- Peri-trichous bacteria
b- Lopho-trichous bacteria
c- Amphi-trichous bacteria
d- Monotrichous bacteria
177- Genetic information of bacteria is carried on
a- Messenger RNA
b- Transfer RN|A
c- Tran****** RNA
d- Double – Stranded DNA
178- Thermophilic bacteria grow at
a- 60 – 80 °C
b- 0 - 20°C
c-. 37°C
d- 100 - 120°C
179- Acidophilic bacteria grow at
a- pH 7.2 – 7.4
b- pH 5.0 – 5.5
c- pH 8.5 – 9.0
d- None of the above
180- ***oplasma is
a- Neutrophilic bacteria
b- Acidophilic bacteria
c- Basophilic bacteria
d- All of the above
181- It is the adaptation of bacteria to the fresh medium
a- Lag phase
b- Decline phase
c- Logarithmic Phase
d- Stationary phase
182- Bacteria which do not cause hemolysis is
a- Beta-Hemolytic
b- Alpha-Hemolytic
c- Gama Hemolytic
d- None of the above
183- Normal flora of Lower intestine are all of the following except:
a- Staphylococci
b- Diphtheroids
c- Shigella
d- Lactobacillus
184- Opportunistic pathogens are all of the following except:
a- Cause a disease when the host defense are suppressed.
b- Are normal flora of healthy body
c- Are greatly harmful
d- Do not invade the body or tissue.
185- For disinfection of mattresses :
a- Hot air oven
b- Autoclave
c- Ethylene Oxide
d- Hydrogen Peroxide
186- Pyschrophilic bacteria grow at:
a- 10٠°C
b- 6٠°C
c- 14°C
d- 37°C
187- Bacteria which contain chlorophyll
a- Heterotrophic bacteria
b- Autotrophic bacteria
c- Photosynthetic bacteria
d- All of the above
188- Tricophyton is one of
a- Yeast
b- Moulds
c- Dermatophyte
d- Dimorphic Fungi
189- Plasto***es is one of
a- Dermatophytes
b- Dimorphic Fungi
c- Yeast
d- Moulds
190- Color of gram negative bacteria is
a- Violet
b- Green
c- Red
d- Black
191- Acid Fast Bacteria
a- Salmonella
b- Shigella
c- M. T****culosis
d- E – Coli
192- Spherical or avoid cells occurring in chains
a- Staphylococci
b- Streptococci
c- Lactobacillus
d- Spiro chaeta
193- ……………… carries the genetic information
a- the envelope
b- the capsid
c- the nucleic acid
d- the prion
194- …………………… may be seen under light microscope
a- rota virus
b- influenza virus
c- herps virus
d- pox virus
195- viruses may be:
a- monomorphic
b- pleomorphic
c- dimorphic
d- all of the above
196- viral capside is formed of:
a- protein
b- glycogen
c- lipoprotein bilayer
d- glycoprotein
197- class III in Baltimor classification is:
a- double stranded DNA viruses
b- single stranded DNA viruses
c- double stranded RNA viruses
d- single stranded RNA viruses
198- Hierarchial virus classification system use the following characters except:
a- nature of nucleic acid
b- capside symmetry
c- diameter of viron & capside
d- virus molecular weight
199- in viral replication which is true:
a- penetration is the 1st step
b- assembly is the last step
c- relaease is the last step
d- all of the above
200- viron:
a- may be extracellular phase of virus
b- may be intracellular phase of virus
c- can grow and replicate
d- means “ virus – like “
201- pleomorphic viruses means :
a- virus which have constant shape
b- virus that may appear in 2 forms
c- virus that have not a constant morphology
d- virus that have spherical shape
202- vapor of gold is used in :
a- shadow casting technique
b- negative staining technique
c- positive staining technique
d- non of the above
203- direct diagnosis of virus :
a- ELISA Antibody
b- CFT
c- IFT
d- PCR virus
204- all of the following are required in cell culture except:
a- neutral PH
b- presence of buffer salts
c- presence of antibiotics
d- incubation at 20 C (( 30-37 C))
205- all of the following are diagnostic molecular biological technique except:
a- PCR
b- ELISA
c- nucleic acid hyperdization
d- DNA finger printing
206- PCR require all of the following except:
a- extracted DNA template
b- 2 specific primers
c- reation buffer
d- RNA polymerase
207- bacteriophage is :
a- virus that can be killed by antibiotic
b- virus that act like a bacteria
c- bacteria that act like a virus
d- virus that infect bacteria
208- all of the following viruses are transmitted by ***** except:
a- HIV
b- HBV
c- HCV
d- herps virus
209-all of the following are RNA viruses except:
a- corona viridase
b- re***ridase
c- picorona viridase
d- pox viridase