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ÞÏíã 02-06-2012, 02:16 AM
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ÊÇÑíÎ ÇáÊÓÌíá: May 2012
ÇáãÔÇÑßÇÊ: 47
ãÚÏá ÊÞííã ÇáãÓÊæì: 26
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210- penetration of naked virus is by :
a- fusion
b- endocytosis
c- trans********
d- all of the above

211- amniotic cavity inoculation is one type of virus culture in:
a- tissue wall
b- lab animals
c- embryonated egg
d- non of the above

212- …………….. is an invitro method amplification of a short sequence of target DNA
a- PCR
b- hyberdization
c- finger printing
d- all of the above

213- nucleic acid hyberdization means:
a- probe anneling or binding with it’s complementary
segment of NA
b- fragmentation of nucleic acid
c- amplification of nucleic acid
d- non of the above

214- DNA hyberdization is performed by:
a- primers
b- DNA labeled probe
c- restriction endonuclease
d- non of the above

215-PCR starts with :
a- annealing
b- denaturation of DNA
c-extension of primers
d- non of the above

216- ……………….. is a piece of DNA fragment of a particular gene that can bind specially with it’s complementary piece of DNA:
a- codon
b- probe
c- LCR
d- code

217- how many primers are used in PCR :
a- non
b- one
c- two
d- three

304-Lowenstein-Jensen media is used for the isolation for:
a- neisseria gonorrhea
b- ***obacterium t****culosis
c- haemophilus influenza
d- staphylococcus aureus



305- Hekton-Enteric agar is the selective media for:
a- salmonella
b- streptococcus
c- staphylococcus
d- all of the above

306- the selective media for isolation of fungi is:
a- S-S agar
b- XLD agar
c- sabouraud glucose agar
d- Hekton-Enteric agar

307- gram positive rods with Chinese letter appearance:
a- ***obacterium t****culosis
b- corynebacteria diphtheria
c- clostridium tetani
d- staphylococcus pneumonia

308- E lek test is done to diagnose :
a- streptococcus
b- staphylococcus aureus
c- clostridium tetani
d- corynebacteria diphtheria

309- all are lactose fermenter except:
a- E-COLI
b- proteus
c- klebsiella
d- enterobacter

310- produce pale colonies on MacConkey’s agar and have tendency to swarm on ***** agar:
a- salmonella
b- shigella
c- klebsiella
d- proteus





311- lactose frementer gram negative bacilli with mucoid growth:
a- salmonella
b- shigella
c- klebsiella
d- proteus

312-non lactose fermenter gram negative bacilli produce H2S :
a- salmonella
b- shigella
c- klebsiella
d- proteus

313- Widal test is done for diagnosis of :
a- salmonella
b- shigella
c- E-coli
d- klebsiella

314- the causative agent of enteric fever:
a- salmonella
b- shigella
c- klebsiella
d- proteus

315- the most common cause of urinary tract infection :
a- E-coli
b- salmonella
c- shigella
d- streptococcus

316- an important cause of diarrhea in infant:
a- staphylococcus
b- E-coli
c- salmonella
d- shigella

317- the most common causative agent for peptic ulcer :
a- campylobacter
b- H-pylori
c- V-cholera
d- all of the above
318- TCBS is the selective media for isolation of:
a- H-pylori
b- V-cholera
c- E-coli
d- H influenza

319- gram negative bacilli strict aerobes grows on simple media producing a characteristic greenish pigment:
a- campylobacter
b- pseudomonas
c- pasterulla
d- bordetella

320- the bacteria which cause scarlet fever:
a- staphylococcus
b- streptococcus
c- salmonella
d- shigella

321- antistreptolysin O titer (ASO) is done for the diagnosis of:
a- group A streptococcus
b- group B streptococcus
c- staphylococcus aureus
d- staphylococcus albus

323- Loffler’s serum is used for isolation of:
a- anthrax
b- clostridium
c- diphtheria
d- T.B

324- gas gangrene is caused by:
a- clostridium tetani
b- clostridium botulinum
c- clostridium welchii
d- non of the above (( clostridium perfinges ))

325- Bacillary dysentery is caused by:
a- salmonella
b- shigella
c- cholera
d- all of the above

326- the cause of plague:
a- Y-enterocolitica
b- Y-pestis
c- Y pseudot****culsois
d- non of the above

327- treponema palladium is the cause of :
a- T.B
b- gonorrhea
c- syphilis
d- AIDS

328- the venereal disease research laboratory test (VDRL) is done for diagnosis of:
a- T.B
b- gonorrhea
c- syphilis
d- AIDS

329- Trachoma is caused by:
a- ***oplasma
b- chlamydiae
c-richettsia
d- ***obacteria

391- M-t****culsis bacilli stain with :
a- gram stain
b- Zheil Nelson stain
c- Gimesa stain
d- all of the above

392- AIDS is transmitted through :
a- food
b- *****
c- semen
d- (b) & (c)





393- bacteria which cause syphilis:
a- Neisseria gonorrhea
b- Viencent angina
c- Treponema palladium
d- Yersinia pestis

394- to diagnose syphilis:
a- RPR
b- VDRL
c- Wasserman
d- all of the above

395- streptococci secret:
a- streptolysin O
b- streptolysin S
c- streptokinase
d- all of the above

396- disease caused by streptococci:
a- scarlet fever
b- purperal sepsis
c- rheumatic fever
d- all of the above

397- staphylococci secrets:
a- coagulase enzyme
b- fibrinolysin
c- hyaluronidase
d- all of the above

398- gram positive bacilli:
a- Klebsilla
b- Salmonella
c- Proteus
d- C-diphtheria

399- meningeococcal meningitis is transmitted by :
a- food
b- droplet
c- touch
d- all of the above

400- dark field microscopy is used to diagnose :
a- T.B.
b- syphilis
c- gonorrhea
d- AIDS

401- it cause food poisining with flacid paralysis:
a- clostridium tetani
b- clostridium welchii
c- clostridium botulinium
d- all of the above

402- the infective stage of plasmodium vivax :
a-merozoites
b- sporozoites
c- schizont
d- trophozoite

403- Pirenella conica snail is the intermediate host of:
a- schistosoma haematobium
b- fasciola hiptica
c- heterphyes heterophyes
d- diphyllobothrium latum

404- Bulinus truncates snail is the intermediate host of :
a- fasciola hepatica
b- fasciola gigantica
c- schistosoma haematobium
d- schistosoma mansonii

405- to isolate meningiococci we have to culture the sample on:
a- Bordet Gengou
b- modified Thayer martin media
c- Lowenstein Jensen media
d- all of the above

406- to isolate fungi :
a- Brain-Heart infusion media
b- tissue culture
c- Lowenstein –Jensen media
d- chocolate agar

407- to isolate H- influenza:
a- ***** agar
b- chocolate agar
c- mac Conkey media
d- all of the above

408- the bacteria which cause pseudomembrainous conjunctivitis :
a- N.gonorrhea
b- C. diphtheria
c- staphylococcus
d- Chlamydia

409- the best sample to diagnose meningitis :
a- *****
b- sputum
c- CSF
d- urine

410- used to stain Chlamydia
a- gram stain
b- giemsa stain
c- wright stain
d- all of the above
411-……….. is used as transport medium for sample in which cholera is suspected
a- Cary-Blair media
b- Stuart media
c- Alkaline peptone water
d- glycerol

412- the color of XLD medium:
a- green
b- red
c- yellow
d- blue

413- CIN medium is used to isolate:
a- E.coli
b- Vibrio cholera
c- yersinia
d- salmonella

414- to make wet mount preparation:
a- 10 % KOH
b- 10 % Na OH
c- 10 % Na CO3
d- 10% Na Cl

415- we do wet mount preparation for vaginal smear To diagnose:
a- T.vaginalis
b- N.gonorrhea
c- streptococci
d- staphylococci

416- to isolate viruses:
a- Loeffler media
b- tissue culture
c- Bordet –Gengou media
d- Brain- Heart infusion

417- to diagnose whooping cough :
a- Bordet –Gengou media
b- Lowenstein –Jensen media
c- modified Thayer martin media
d- New York city agar

418- to diagnose systemic infection we do :
a- urine culture
b- CSF culture
c- ***** culture
d- sputum culture

419- we give no growth for ***** culture after:
a- 1 week
b- 8 weeks
c- 6 weeks
d- 3 weeks





420- to dissolve mucous in sputum sample :
a- 10% NaOH
b- 30 % NaOH
c- 10 % KOH
d- 10% NaCl

421- mutualism means:
a- one partener benefits , other unaffected
b- both partner benefit
c- one partner benefit , other damaged
d- living together

422- Commensalisms means:
a- living together
b- one partner benefit , other damaged
c- both partner benefit
d- one partner benefits , other unaffected

423- Balantidium coli moves by:
a- flagella
b- cilia
d- pseudopod
d- all of the above

424- Mouth inhabitant:
a- Trichomonas hominis
b- Trichomonas tenax
c- Trichomonas vaginalis
d- giardia lamblia

425- Transmitted by sexual intercourse:
a- toxoplasma
b- giardia lamblia
c- Trichomonas vaginalis
d- all of the above

465- citrate utilization test is done to assist identification of:
a- gram +ve bacteria
b- gram –ve bacteria
c- entrobacteria
d- enterococcus

466- the Kovac's reagent used in the following biochemical tests:
a- catalase
b- coagulase
c- indole
d- methyl red

467- positive results for H2S production appear as …. Colour:
a- black
c- yellow
c- red
d- green

468-………. Give positive coagulase test:
a- streptococci
b- staphylococcus aureus
c- staphylococcus saprophyticus
d- Escherichia coli

469- methyl red test is performed with:
a- Erlich reagent
b- Kovac's reagent
c- Voges proskaur
d- non of the above

470- ………… give positive result with urease test:
a- salmonella
b- shigella
c- Y. enterocolitica
d- all of the above

471-…………. test is used to differentiate between bacteroides & brucella:
a- indole
b- methyl red
c- H2S production
d- nitrate reduction

472- DNAase test is positive with:
a- streptococcus pneumonia
b- E.coli
c- staphylococcus aureus
d- staphylococcus epidermis

473- ………… solution used in the gram stain technique acts as a mordant:
a- crystal violet
b- safranine
c- iodine
d- alcohol

474- the counter stain in Ziehl- Neelson stain is :
a- malachite green
b- methylene blue
c- iodine
d- (a) & (b)

475- bile solubility test is positive with :
a- streptococcus viridans
b- streptococcus pneumonia
c- streptococcus agalectiae
d- streptococcus pyrogenes

476-litmus milk decolorization test assist the identification of :
a- entrobacteria
b- bacteroides
c- brucella
d- enterococci[/align]
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[IMG]http://www.*****.com/vb/*****/statusicon/post_old.gif[/IMG] 05-20-2009, 12:02 AM ÑÞã ÇáãÔÇÑßÉ : [2] Ýäí ãÎÊÈÑ æÇáÑÒÞ Úáì Çááå
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[IMG]http://www.*****.com/vb/*****/statusicon/post_old.gif[/IMG] 05-20-2009, 03:42 AM ÑÞã ÇáãÔÇÑßÉ : [3] DR.UMAR
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HEMATOLOGY

1- Vitamin K antagonist :
a- warfarin
b- Heparin
c- Protein C
d- Antithrombin III

2- One of the intrinsic pathway
a- factor XI
b- factor XIII
c- factor I
d- factor VII

3- Para hemophilia is the deficiency of
a- factor VIII
b- factor IX
c- factor V
d- factor VII

4- Eosinophilia is seen in :
a- food sensitivity
b- Drug sensitivity
c- Atopic dermatitis
d- all of the above

5- Multiple myeloma is a neoplastic proliferation of:
a- lymphocytes
b- Granulocytes
c- Plasma cells
d- Monocytes

6- Test for intrinsic pathway:
a- bleeding time
b- Thrombin time
c- Prothrombin time
d- Partial thromboplastin time PTT


7- Paul-Bunnel test is done to diagnose:
a- multiple myeloma
b- Hodgkin’s disease
c- Infectious mononucleosis
d- all of the above

8- increased platelet count is :
a- thrombocytopenia
b- thrombopoietin
c- thrombocytosis
d- all of the above

9- Decreased platelet count is:
a- thrombocytopenia
b- Thrombopoietin
c- Thrombocytosis
d- all of the above

10- All these are causes of thrombocytopenia except:
a- cytotoxic *****
b- Aplastic anemia
c- Hemorrhage
d- Radiotherapy

11- Prothrombin time is done to test:
a- Intrinsic pathway only
b- Extrinsic pathway only
c- Extrinsic and common pathways
d- Intrinsic and common pathways

12- Normal bleeding time by Duke’s method:
a- 2-7 minutes
b- 2-7 seconds
c- 2-4 minutes
d- 2-4 seconds

13- Normal partial thromboplastin time (PPT) is :
a- 3-4 minutes
b- 30-45 seconds
c- 12-15 seconds
d- 12-15 minutes

14- Hemophilia A is the deficiency of :
a- factor V
b- factor VIII
c- factor IX
d- all of the above

15-the most common form of leukemia in children is:
a- acute lymphoblastic leukemia
b- Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
c- Acute myeloid leukemia
d- Chronic myeloid leukemia

16- Bence-Jones protein is present in cases of:
a- chronic myeloid myeloma
b-acute myeloid myeloma
c- Hodgkin’s lymphoma
d- multiple myeloma

17- Reed-Sternberg cells are found in cases of :
a- acute lymphoblastic leukemia
b- Non Hodgkin’s lymphoma
c- Hodgkin’s lymphoma
d- Multiple myeloma

18- Normal platelet count is :
a- 150,000 to 450,000/min3
b- 400,000 to 800,000/min3
c- 4,000 to 11,000 /min3
d- 50,000 to 100,000/min3

19- Antithrombin III inhibits:
a- factor Va
b- factor VIIIa
c- factor Xa
d- all of the above

20- Heparin potentiate the action of :
a- protein C
b- protein S
c- antithrombin III
d- warfarin


21- Factor II of ***** clotting is:
a- Christmas factor
b- Fibrinogen
c- Prothrombin
d- Thromboplastin

22- One of fibrinogen group is : I V VIII XIII
a- II
b- V
c- VII
d- IX

23- Fibrinogen is converted to soluble fibrin by:
a- prothrombin
b- Thromboplastin
c- Thrombin
d- all of the above

24- Thrombopoitin control the formation of:
a- red ***** cells
b- White ***** cells
c- platelets
d- non of the above

25- Normal prothrombin time (PT) is:
a- 30-45 seconds
b- 30-45 minutes
c- 12-15 seconds
d- 12-15 minutes

26- Parasitic disease is associated with:
a- monocytosis - bacteria
b- Lymphocytosis - virus
c- Basophilia - sensitive
d- Eosinophilia

27- Philadelphia chromosome is diagnostic for:
a- acute lymphoblastic leukemia
b- Acute myeloid leukemia
c- Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
d- chronic myeloid leukemia
28- Normal fibrinogen level:
a- 150-400 gm%
b- 150-400 mg %
c- 15-40 mg %
d- 15-40 gm %

29-infectious mononucleosis is caused by:
a- echo virus
b- coxsaki virus
c- Epstein Barr virus EBV
d- Cytomegalo virus

30- Atypical lymphocytosis is seen in cases of:
a- Hodgkin’s lymphoma
b- Multiple myeloma
c- Infectious mononucleosis
d- Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

31-monospot test is done to diagnose:
a- Acute myeloid leukemia
b- Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
c- Infectious mononucleosis
d- Infectious lymphocytosis

32- The test which depend on ***** platelets & capillary fragility is:
a- prothrombin time
b- Thrombin time
c- Bleeding time
d- Clotting time

33- Fibrin is broken to fibrin degradation products by the action of:
a- Prothrombin
b- Thrombin
c- Plasminogen
d- Plasmin





34- Acute myeloid leukemia is characterized by:
a- low neutrophil alkaline phosphatase
b- Myeloblast with Auer rods
c- Neutrophil with Pleger-Huet ano****
d- all of the above

35- Plasminogen is converted to plasmin by :
a- Heparin
b-Histamine
c- Urokinase
d- Serotonin

36- Increase D-dimers and fibrin degradation products are seen in cases of:
a- Hemophilia A
b- Vitamin K deficiency
c- Diffuse intravascular coagulation
d- Von Willebrand disease

37- Activated protein C degrades:
a- factor IXa
b- Factor VIIIa
c- Factor Xa
d- Factor Xia

38- Heparin is found in
a- Neutrophil
b- Basophil
c- Acidophil
d- all of the above

39- In hemophilia A the test which will be prolonged is
a- PT
b- PTT
c- Bleeding time
d- all of the above

40- Bleeding due to overdose of heparin is managed by giving:
a- Vit K
b- Vit C
c- Vit A
d- Protamin sulphate
41- Streptokinase and staphylokinase convert:
a- Prothrombin to thrombin
b- Fibrinogen to fibrin
c- Soluble fibrin to insoluble fibrin
d- Plasminogen to plasmin

42- Test for platelet **********
a- Clot retraction
b- Platelet aggregation
c- Platelet adhesion
d- all of the above

43- Prolonged PT occurs in cases of deficiency of:
a- Factor III
b- Factor IV
c- Factor V
d- all of the above

44- normal thrombin time (TT):
a- 30-45 sec
b- 2-4 min
c- 3-9 min
d- 10-20 sec

45- cause of vitamin K deficiency:
a- Obstructive jaundice
b- Prolonged use of antibiotics
c- Inadequate intake
d- all of the above

46- Cause of Hyper- Coagulable state:
a- Aplastic anemia
b- Cytotxic *****
c- Polcythemia
d- Radiotherapy

47-Physiological cause of neutrophilia:
a- New born
b- Radiotherapy
c- Cytotoxic *****
d- Prolonged use of antibiotics
48- Leucocytosis characterized by the presence of immature cells and high neutrophil alkaline phosphatase:
a- chronic myeloid leukemia
b- Acute myeloid leukemia
c- Leukaemid reaction
d- non of the above

49- Normal coagulation time (CT):
a- 3-9 min
b- 3-9 sec
c- 30-40 sec
d- 30-40 min

50- The test which measures the clotting time of citrated plasma accelerated by the addition of a clotting factor activator (kaolin) , phospholipids and calcium:
a- coagulation time
b- Prothrombin time
c- Partial thromboplastin time
d- Thrombin time

51- The test which measures the clotting time of citrated plasma to which thromboplastin and calcium has been added:
a- thrombin time
b- Prothrombin time
c- Coagulation time
d- Partial thromboplastin time

52- The test which is widely used as a control and follow up test to control anticoagulant treatment:
a- APTT
b- PTT
c- PT
d- TT

53- A disease characterized by progressive neoplastic proliferation of immature white cell precursor:
a- acute leukemia
b- Chronic leukemia
c- Lymphoma
d- Multiple myeloma


54- The absolute lymphocyte count may be up to 300,000 or more between 70 and 90 % of white cells in the ***** film appear as s**** lymphocytes . THE CASE IS:
a- Acute myeloid leukemia
b- Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
c- Chronic myeloid leukemia
d- Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

55- Variation in red cells size:
a- Poikilcytosis
b- Anisocytosis
c- Reticulocytosis
d- Leukocytosis

56- Dark red cells with no area of central pallor:
a- Stomatocyte
b- Spherocyte
c- Acathocyte
d- Schistocyte

57- Microcytic hypochromic anemia
a- hereditary spherocytosis
b- Sickle cell anemia
c- Iron deficiency anemia
d- Vit B12 deficiency anemia

58- Target cells are seen in cases of:
a- folic acid deficiency
b- Iron deficiency anemia
c- Vit B12 deficiency anemia
d- Thalassemia

59- Red cells with elongated area of central pallor:
a- spherocyte
b- Schistocyte
c- Stomatocyte
d- Elliptocutes



60- ……………….. Symmetric, short , sharp projection from the red cells and seen in iron deficiency anemia:
a- echinocyte
b- Acanthocyte
c- Elliptocyte
d- Ovalocyte

61- ……………… is a condition in which the absorption of vit B12 is greatly impaired due to failure or marked reduction of intrinsic factor secretion:
a- fauvism
b- fanconi’s anemia
c-sickle cell anemia
d- thalassemia
e- pernicious anemia

62- Hyperchromic cells are seen in:
a- iron deficiency anemia
b- Thalassemia
c- Hereditary spherocytosis
d- Sickle cell anemia

63- A prolonged low rate of bleeding results in:
a- normochromic anemia
b- Hypochromic anemia
c- Hyperchromic anemia
d- non of the above

64- Schilling test is done in diagnosis of:
a- iron deficiency anemia
b- Pernicious anemia
c- Aplastic anemia
d- folic acid deficiency


65- Defective synthesis of either alpha or beta chains of normal hemoglobin
cause:
a- sickle cell anemia
b- Aplastic anemia
c- Pernicious anemia
d- Thalassemia

66- Neutrophils represent…………… of circulating leukocyte:
a- 2-8 %
b- 0-1 %
c- 50-70 %
d- 2-4 %

67- …………. are non nucleated, biconcave shaped cells:
a- platelet
b- Leukocyte
c- Erythrocyte
d- Macrophages

68- …………….. represent 50-70 % of total leukocytes
a- lymphocytes
b- Neutrophils
c- Monocytes
d- Eosinophilis

69- …………… have a characteristic biffed nucleus and their cytoplasm is filled with large refractile granules that stain red in ***** smear
a- neutrophils
b- Eosinophilis
c- Basophiles
d- Lymphocytes

70- The cell which is responsible for antibody production is:
a- moncytes
b- T-lymphocytes
c- B-lymphocytes = plasma cell
d- Neutrophils


71- …… is a curved cell with sharp ends seen in haemoglobinopathies (HBS)
a- sickle cell
b- Spherocyte
c- Ovalocyte
d- Stomatocyte


72- All of the following is correct about sickle cell anemia except:
a- leg ulcers
b- Gall stones
c- Enlargement of spleen
d- Attacks of pain

73- ……….. is a single, large, rounded , dark , purple remnant of nucleus
a- Heinz body
b- Howeel-Jolly body
c- Pappenheimer body
d- Cabot ring

74- Agranulocyte:
a- neutrophil
b- Lymphocyte
c- Basophile
d- Eosinophil

75- Pica ( craving to eat unusual substance such as clay or ice) is one of the symptoms of:
a- G6PD deficiency
b- Thalassemia
c- Megaloblastic anemia
d- Iron deficiency anemia

76- In …………….. there’s a decreased or absent hemosiderin in bone marrow
a- sideroblastic anemia
b- Iron deficiency anemia
c- Megaloblastic anemia
d- Hemolytic anemia

77- Chloramphenicol may cause …………. anemia in long term therapy
a- iron deficiency
b- Vit B12 deficiency
c- folic acid deficiency
d- Aplastic anemia


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