78- ………. is the fluid (with anticoagulant) component of ***** , it contains salt & organic compounds:
a- plasma
b- Serum
c- Hemoglobin
d- Billirubin
79- Poikilocytosis is:
a- variation in red cell size
b- Variation in red cell color
c- Variation in red cell shape
d- non of the above
80- Red cell fragments:
a- echinocyte
b- Elliptocyte
c- Schistocyte
d- Stomatocyte
81- It is a defect of red cell member
a- Thalassemia
b- Sickle cell anemia
c- Hereditary spherocytosis
d- Megaloblastic anemia
82- All of the following is correct regarding spherocytosis except:
a- normocytic normochromic anemia
b- Decreased reticulocyte count
c- Raised plasma bilirubin
d- Increased osmotic fragility
83- Heinz bodies are seen in cases of
a- hereditary spherocytosis
b- Hereditary elliplocytosis
c- G6PD deficiency
d- sickle cell anemia
84- ……………… is caused by substitution of amino acid (valine) instead of glutamic acid at position No.#6 in the beta chain of hemoglobin
a- Hb-A
b- Hb-A2
c- Hb –F
d- Hb –S sickle cell
85- Atrophy of the spleen is seen in cases of:
a- Thalassemia
b- Sickle cell anemia
c- G6PD deficiency
d- Hereditary elliplocytosis
86- iron deficiency lead to :
a- normocytic normochromic anemia
b- microcytic hypochromic anemia
c- macrocytic anemia
d- hemolytic anemia
87- Neurological symptoms are seen in cases of:
a- iron deficiency anemia
b- folic acid deficiency
c- Vit B12 deficiency
d- all of the above
88- Megaloplastic hematopoiesis is seen in cases of:
a- iron deficiency anemia
b- folic acid deficiency
c- Vit B12 deficiency
d- Vit C deficiency
89- Fanconi’s anemia is a type of :
a - vit B12 deficiency
b- aplastic anemia
c- Thalassemia
d- folic acid deficiency anemia
90- the most abundant leukocyte in a normal ***** smear of adult is :
a- lymphocyte
b- Monocyte
c- Eosinophil
d- Neutrophil
91- The first line of defense against parasites:
a- neutrophils
b- Basophile
c- Eosinophil
d- Lymphocyte
92- …………….. play a role in immediate and delayed hypersensitivity:
a- monocyte
b- Lymphocyte
c- Eosinophil
d- Basophile
93- The largest leukocyte is :
a- neutrophils
b- Lymphocyte
c- Monocyte
d- Basophile
94- Cell which participate in cell mediated immunity:
a- monocyte
b- B- lymphocyte
c- T- lymphocyte
d- neutrophils
95- ……… promotes ***** clotting and help to prevent ***** loss from damaged ***** vessels:
a- platelets
b- WBCs
c- RBCs
d- all of the above
96-antibody induced hemolytic disease in new born that is caused by ***** group incompatibility between mother and fetus:
a- hemolytic uremic syndrome
b- Erythroblastosis fetalis
c- Hereditary spherocytosis
d- Thromboloc thrombocytopenic purpurea
97- Young red ***** cell with cytoplasmic RNA:
a- spherocyte
b- Reticulocyte
c- Stomatocyte
d- elliptocyte
98- Normal adult hemoglobin tetramer is:
a- 2 alpha : 2 gama
b- 2 alpha : 2 beta
c- 2 alpha : 2 delta
d- 2 beta : 2 gama
99- …………… represent 2-4 % of total leukocyte:
a- neutrophils
b- Basophile
c- Eosinophil
d- Monocyte
100- ………… are s**** cytoplasmic fragment derived from megakaryocytic:
a- RBCs
b- WBCs
c- Platelet
d- non of the above
101 - ………….. is the reduction in the amount of circulating hemoglobin , red ***** cells or both:
a- polycythemia
b- Anemia
c- Hemophilia
d- Leucopenia
102- Thalassemia is :
a- microcytic anemia
b- Macrocytic anemia
c- Normocytic anemia
d- non of the above
103- Vit B12 deficiency lead to :
a- hemolytic anemia
b- Microcytic anemia
c- Normocytic anemia
d- Megaloblastic anemia
104- Lymphocyte represent ………….. of total leukocyte:
a- 20-40 %
b- 50-70 %
c- 2-8 %
d- 1-5 %
105- Plumer- Vinson syndrome may be seen in cases of:
a- iron deficiency anemia
b- Vit B12 deficiency anemia
c- Aplastic anemia
d- folic acid deficiency anemia
106- peripheral, pale inclusions that push out the cell membrane and composed of hemoglobin:
a- cabot ring
b- Pappenheimer body
c- Howell-Jolly body
d- Heinz body
107- it’s an acute hemolytic anemia occurring after the ingestion of broad bean in individual with deficiency of G6PD :
a-thalassemia
b- Favism
c- Fanconi’s anemia
d- Cooley’s anemia
108-………………. is a multiple s**** , peripheral grape like purple clusters of iron:
a- cabot ring
b- Heinz body
c- Howell-Jolly body
d- Pappenheimer body
109- the ***** smear gives the physician information concerning:
a- morphology of RBCs and platelet
b- Presence of abnormal inclusion
c- Presence of immature cells
d- all of the above
110- hypersplenism is one of the causes of :
a- iron deficiency anemia
b- Hemolytic anemia
c- Aplastic anemia
d- Megaloblastic anemia
111- Increased reticulocytes count is seen in cases of:
a- hereditary spherocytosis
b- G6PD deficiency
c- Sickle cell anemia
d- all of the above
112- The antibody which can pass the placenta:
a- Ig M
b- Ig G
c- Ig D
d- Ig E
113- ……… is an autoimmune disease in which there is an immune destruction of the acid and pepsin secreating cells of the stomach:
a- fanconi’s anemia
b- cooley’s anemia
c-pernicious anemia
d- non of the above
114- All of these are laboratory features of aplastic anemia except:
a- pancytopenia
b-markedly hypocellular marrow
c- Increased reticulocyte count
d- Markedly increase in serum erythropoietin
115- Secondary granules of neutrophils contain:
a- elastase
b- Myeloperoxidase
c- Lysozyme
d- Histamine
116- Monocytes represent ………………. of total leukocyte:
a- 0-1 %
b- 2-4 %
c- 2-8 %
d- 20-4 %
117- the reagent used for leukocyte count is :
a- citric acid
b- Acetic acid
c- Hydrochloric acid
d- Sulphoric acid
BACTERIOLOGY
118- All are Prokaryotic cells except:
a- Fungi
b- Bacteria
c - Chlamydia
d- ***oplasma
119- Viruses:
a- Contain only DNA or RNA
b - They Contain ribosome
c- Did not affected by antibiotics
d- a+c
120- All of these are essential structure except:
a- Nuclear body
b- Spores
c- Cell wall
d- Plasma Membrane
121- ________ is giving the shape to the bacteria
a.- Cytoplasmic Membrane
b- Capsule
c- Cell Wall
d- All of the above
122- One of its functions is selective permeability
a- Cell wall
b- Plasma membrane
c- Capsule
d- Spores
123- They are responsible for Haemagglutination Phenomenon
a- Flagella
b- Fimbria
c- Capsule
d- Cell wall
124- Clostridium Tetani is:
a- Atrichous bacteria
b- Mono-trichous bacteria
c- Amphi-trichous bacteria
d- Peri-trichous bacteria
125- Short curved or straight rods, motile by single polar flagellum
a- spirochaeta
b- Vibrio
c- Escherichia
d- Lactobacillus
126- S**** gram negative cocci, occur in pairs
a- staphylococcus
b- streptococcus
c- neisseria
d- non of the above
127- Transfer of genetic information from one bacterium to another by
bacteriophages is:
a. Transformation
b. Tansduction
c. Conjugation
d. Mutation
128- Salmonella are:
a- Obligatory Aerobic bacteria
b.- Obligatory Anaerobic bacteria
c- Facultative Anaerobic bacteria
d- Micro-aerophilic bacteria
129- According to pH, vibrio cholera is
a- Osmophilic bacteria
b- Basophilic bacteria
c- Acidophilic bacteria
d- Neutrophilic bacteria
130- Staphylococci are:
a- Atrichous bacteria
b- Mono-trichous bacteria
c- Amphi-trichous bacteria
d- Peri-trichous bacteria
131- During replication of DNA, copying errors may occur and this is called
a- Conjugation
b- Transduction
c- Transformation
d- Mutation
132- Obligatory Anaerobic bacteria
a- grow only in presence of oxygen
b- grow only in absence of oxygen
c- grow either in presence or absence of oxygen
d- grow in presence of oxygen traces and 5 – 10% CO2
133- Neutrophilic bacteria grow well at
a- pH 8.5 – 9.0
b- pH 7.2 – 7.4
c- pH 5.0 – 5.5
d- pH 2.5 – 3.0
134- The rate of cell death increase and bacterial growth stopped, this is
a- Adaptation phase
b- Exponential phase .
c- Stationary phase.
d- Decline Phase
135- Beta-hemolytic
a- Cause complete hemolysis of RBC’s
b- Cause chemical change of Hemoglobin in RBC’s
c- Do not cause hemolysis
d- None of them
146- Mesophilic bacteria grow at:
a- 37°C
b- 14°C
c- 60°C
d- 120°C
137- Circulation of Bacteria and its toxins in *****
a- Pyaemia
b- Toxemia
c.- Bacteremia - without toxins
d- Septicemia
138- Disinfections that applied on living or injured tissues:
a- Sterilization
b- Antiseptic
c- Sanitation
d- Decontamination
139- Hot air oven is used for sterilization of
a- Glass
b- Rubber Gloves
c.- Plastic Syringes
d- Catheters
140- Disinfectant for superficial fungal infection
a- Phenol
b- Potassium permanganate
c- Chlorine
d- Hypochlorite compounds
141- Rifampin
a- inhibit cell wall synthesis
b- inhibit protein synthesis
c- inhibit folic acid pathway
d- inhibit mRNA synthesis
142- Transacetylase inactivate
a- aminoglycosides
b- chloramphenicol
c- penicillin
d- cephalosporins
143- The color of gram positive bacteria is
a- Yellow
b- Black.
c- Pink
d- Violet
144- Selective media for fungi
a- ***** agar
b- Mac Conkey agar
c- Nutrient agar
d- Sabourand’s dextrose agar
145- Histoplasma is a :
a- Systemic ***osis
b- Sub – Cutaneous ***osis
c- Cutaneous ***osis
d- Superficial ***osis
146- All are asexual spores produced by mould except
a- Conidio – spores
b- Sporangio – spores
c- Endospores
d- Arthro – spores
147- They reproduce only by Asexual reproduction
a- Blasto***osis
b- Deutro***osis
c- Asco***etes
d- Zygo***etes
148- The functions of cell wall is all of the following except:
a- Giving the shape to the bacteria
b- Carrying somatic antigen
c-Selective permeability& transport of solutes = plasma membrane
d- Protect the bacteria from plasmolysis
149- Atrichous Bacteria are:
a- Bacteria contain one flagellum
b- Bacteria contain 2 flagella
c- Bacteria without flagella
d- Bacteria with a tuft of flagella
150-__________ are essential for host cell attachment:
a- Flagella
b- Fimbria
c- Spores
d- Capsules
151- Irregular clusters of spherical cells:
a- Streptococcus
b- Staphylococcus
c- Lactobacillus
d- Escherichia
152- Clostridium Botulinum is:
a- Obligatory Aerobic Bacteria
b- Facultative Anaerobic Bacteria
c- Obligatory Anaerobic Bacteria
d- Micro- aerophilic Bacteria
153- Basophilic Bacteria grow well at:
a- pH 8.5 – 9.0
b- pH 7.2 – 7.4
c- pH 5.0 – 5.5
d- None of the above
154- Cells are divided at high & constant rate:
a- Decline Phase
b- Stationary Phase
c- Log Exponential Phase
d- Adaptation Phase
155- The dominant bacterial species in dental plaque are:
a- Coagulase Negative Staphylococci
b- Lactobacillus
c- Bacteroides
d- Streptococcus Sanguis
156- The spread of Pyogenic Bacteria in ***** stream to different organs & produce multiple abscess is:
a- Septicemia
b- Bacteremia
c-Toxemia
d- Pyaemia
157- Inhibit the growth of micro organisms
a- Bacteriostatic
b- Bactericidal
c- Fungicidal
d- Germicidal
158- To sterilize fluid damaged by heat:
a- Gaseous Sterilization
b- Heat Sterilization
c- Filtration
d- Ionizing Radiation
159- For water disinfection we use:
a- Hydrogen peroxide
b- Formaldehyde
c- Chlorine
d- Hypochlorite compounds
160- Mechanism of action of penicillin:
a- Block peptidoglycan synthesis
b- Inhibit peptidyglycan cross – linking
c- inhibit folic acid pathway
d- inhibit protein synthesis
161- Sulfonamides:
a- inhibit cell wall synthesis
b- inhibit protein synthesis
c- inhibit DNA synthesis
d- inhibit folic acid pathway
162- Acetylase inactivates:
a- B – Lactam antibiotics
b- Aminoglycosides
c- Cloramphenicol
d- All of the above
163- Ringworm disease is caused by
a- Zygo***etes
b- Asco***etes
c- Blasto***osis
d- None of the above
164- For wet – mount technique we add:
a- NaoH
b- K oH
c- H2 O2
d- All of the above
165- They are transmitted by arthropods
a- Chlamydia
b- Spirochetes
c- ***oplasma
d- All of the above
166- In the past they were listed as large viruses
a- Richettsia
b- ***oplasma
c- Chlamydia
d- None of the above
167- Bacteria multiply by:
a- Replication cycle
b- Simple binary fission
c- Sexual reproduction
d- All of the above
168- It protects bacteria from antibiotics
a- Capsule
b- Cell membrane
c- Flagella
d- Fimbria
169- Vibro cholera is:
a- Mono –trichous bacteria
b- Atrichous bacteria
c- Lopho-trichous bacteria
d- Peri-trichous bacteria
170- Short rods, motile by peritrichous flagella
a- Spirochaeta
b- Lactobacillus
c- Escherichia coli
d- Vibrio
171- To take up soluble DNA fragments derived from other, closely related species is:
a. Mutation
b. Transformation
c. Transduction
d. Conjugation
172- T****culosis are
a- micro-airophilic
b- Facultative anaerobic
c- Obligatory anaerobic
d- Obligatory aerobic
173- According to pH, Lactobacillus is
a- Neutrophlic bacteria
b- Acidophilic bacteria
c- Basophilic bacteria
d- None of the above
174- Bacteria without cell Wall
a- Chlamydia
b- Rickettsia
c- ***oplasma
d.- Spirochetes
175- Brucella Melitensis is
a- Obligatory aerobic bacteria
b- Obligatory anaerobic bacteria
c- Facultative anaerobic bacteria
d- Micro-aerophilic bacteria
176- Pseudomonas aeroginosa is
a- Peri-trichous bacteria
b- Lopho-trichous bacteria
c- Amphi-trichous bacteria
d- Monotrichous bacteria
177- Genetic information of bacteria is carried on
a- Messenger RNA
b- Transfer RN|A
c- Tran****** RNA
d- Double – Stranded DNA
178- Thermophilic bacteria grow at
a- 60 – 80 °C
b- 0 - 20°C
c-. 37°C
d- 100 - 120°C
179- Acidophilic bacteria grow at
a- pH 7.2 – 7.4
b- pH 5.0 – 5.5
c- pH 8.5 – 9.0
d- None of the above
180- ***oplasma is
a- Neutrophilic bacteria
b- Acidophilic bacteria
c- Basophilic bacteria
d- All of the above
181- It is the adaptation of bacteria to the fresh medium
a- Lag phase
b- Decline phase
c- Logarithmic Phase
d- Stationary phase
182- Bacteria which do not cause hemolysis is
a- Beta-Hemolytic
b- Alpha-Hemolytic
c- Gama Hemolytic
d- None of the above
183- Normal flora of Lower intestine are all of the following except:
a- Staphylococci
b- Diphtheroids
c- Shigella
d- Lactobacillus
184- Opportunistic pathogens are all of the following except:
a- Cause a disease when the host defense are suppressed.
b- Are normal flora of healthy body
c- Are greatly harmful
d- Do not invade the body or tissue.
185- For disinfection of mattresses :
a- Hot air oven
b- Autoclave
c- Ethylene Oxide
d- Hydrogen Peroxide
186- Pyschrophilic bacteria grow at:
a- 10٠°C
b- 6٠°C
c- 14°C
d- 37°C
187- Bacteria which contain chlorophyll
a- Heterotrophic bacteria
b- Autotrophic bacteria
c- Photosynthetic bacteria
d- All of the above
188- Tricophyton is one of
a- Yeast
b- Moulds
c- Dermatophyte
d- Dimorphic Fungi
189- Plasto***es is one of
a- Dermatophytes
b- Dimorphic Fungi
c- Yeast
d- Moulds
190- Color of gram negative bacteria is
a- Violet
b- Green
c- Red
d- Black
191- Acid Fast Bacteria
a- Salmonella
b- Shigella
c- M. T****culosis
d- E – Coli
192- Spherical or avoid cells occurring in chains
a- Staphylococci
b- Streptococci
c- Lactobacillus
d- Spiro chaeta
193- ……………… carries the genetic information
a- the envelope
b- the capsid
c- the nucleic acid
d- the prion
194- …………………… may be seen under light microscope
a- rota virus
b- influenza virus
c- herps virus
d- pox virus
195- viruses may be:
a- monomorphic
b- pleomorphic
c- dimorphic
d- all of the above
196- viral capside is formed of:
a- protein
b- glycogen
c- lipoprotein bilayer
d- glycoprotein
197- class III in Baltimor classification is:
a- double stranded DNA viruses
b- single stranded DNA viruses
c- double stranded RNA viruses
d- single stranded RNA viruses
198- Hierarchial virus classification system use the following characters except:
a- nature of nucleic acid
b- capside symmetry
c- diameter of viron & capside
d- virus molecular weight
199- in viral replication which is true:
a- penetration is the 1st step
b- assembly is the last step
c- relaease is the last step
d- all of the above
200- viron:
a- may be extracellular phase of virus
b- may be intracellular phase of virus
c- can grow and replicate
d- means “ virus – like “
201- pleomorphic viruses means :
a- virus which have constant shape
b- virus that may appear in 2 forms
c- virus that have not a constant morphology
d- virus that have spherical shape
202- vapor of gold is used in :
a- shadow casting technique
b- negative staining technique
c- positive staining technique
d- non of the above
203- direct diagnosis of virus :
a- ELISA Antibody
b- CFT
c- IFT
d- PCR virus
204- all of the following are required in cell culture except:
a- neutral PH
b- presence of buffer salts
c- presence of antibiotics
d- incubation at 20 C (( 30-37 C))
205- all of the following are diagnostic molecular biological technique except:
a- PCR
b- ELISA
c- nucleic acid hyperdization
d- DNA finger printing
206- PCR require all of the following except:
a- extracted DNA template
b- 2 specific primers
c- reation buffer
d- RNA polymerase
207- bacteriophage is :
a- virus that can be killed by antibiotic
b- virus that act like a bacteria
c- bacteria that act like a virus
d- virus that infect bacteria
208- all of the following viruses are transmitted by ***** except:
a- HIV
b- HBV
c- HCV
d- herps virus
209-all of the following are RNA viruses except:
a- corona viridase
b- re***ridase
c- picorona viridase
d- pox viridase
210- penetration of naked virus is by :
a- fusion
b- endocytosis
c- trans********
d- all of the above
211- amniotic cavity inoculation is one type of virus culture in:
a- tissue wall
b- lab animals
c- embryonated egg
d- non of the above
212- …………….. is an invitro method amplification of a short sequence of target DNA
a- PCR
b- hyberdization
c- finger printing
d- all of the above
213- nucleic acid hyberdization means:
a- probe anneling or binding with it’s complementary
segment of NA
b- fragmentation of nucleic acid
c- amplification of nucleic acid
d- non of the above
214- DNA hyberdization is performed by:
a- primers
b- DNA labeled probe
c- restriction endonuclease
d- non of the above
215-PCR starts with :
a- annealing
b- denaturation of DNA
c-extension of primers
d- non of the above
216- ……………….. is a piece of DNA fragment of a particular gene that can bind specially with it’s complementary piece of DNA:
a- codon
b- probe
c- LCR
d- code
217- how many primers are used in PCR :
a- non
b- one
c- two
d- three
304-Lowenstein-Jensen media is used for the isolation for:
a- neisseria gonorrhea
b- ***obacterium t****culosis
c- haemophilus influenza
d- staphylococcus aureus
305- Hekton-Enteric agar is the selective media for:
a- salmonella
b- streptococcus
c- staphylococcus
d- all of the above
306- the selective media for isolation of fungi is:
a- S-S agar
b- XLD agar
c- sabouraud glucose agar
d- Hekton-Enteric agar
307- gram positive rods with Chinese letter appearance:
a- ***obacterium t****culosis
b- corynebacteria diphtheria
c- clostridium tetani
d- staphylococcus pneumonia
308- E lek test is done to diagnose :
a- streptococcus
b- staphylococcus aureus
c- clostridium tetani
d- corynebacteria diphtheria
309- all are lactose fermenter except:
a- E-COLI
b- proteus
c- klebsiella
d- enterobacter
310- produce pale colonies on MacConkey’s agar and have tendency to swarm on ***** agar:
a- salmonella
b- shigella
c- klebsiella
d- proteus
311- lactose frementer gram negative bacilli with mucoid growth:
a- salmonella
b- shigella
c- klebsiella
d- proteus
312-non lactose fermenter gram negative bacilli produce H2S :
a- salmonella
b- shigella
c- klebsiella
d- proteus
313- Widal test is done for diagnosis of :
a- salmonella
b- shigella
c- E-coli
d- klebsiella
314- the causative agent of enteric fever:
a- salmonella
b- shigella
c- klebsiella
d- proteus
315- the most common cause of urinary tract infection :
a- E-coli
b- salmonella
c- shigella
d- streptococcus
316- an important cause of diarrhea in infant:
a- staphylococcus
b- E-coli
c- salmonella
d- shigella
317- the most common causative agent for peptic ulcer :
a- campylobacter
b- H-pylori
c- V-cholera
d- all of the above
318- TCBS is the selective media for isolation of:
a- H-pylori
b- V-cholera
c- E-coli
d- H influenza
319- gram negative bacilli strict aerobes grows on simple media producing a characteristic greenish pigment:
a- campylobacter
b- pseudomonas
c- pasterulla
d- bordetella
320- the bacteria which cause scarlet fever:
a- staphylococcus
b- streptococcus
c- salmonella
d- shigella
321- antistreptolysin O titer (ASO) is done for the diagnosis of:
a- group A streptococcus
b- group B streptococcus
c- staphylococcus aureus
d- staphylococcus albus
323- Loffler’s serum is used for isolation of:
a- anthrax
b- clostridium
c- diphtheria
d- T.B
324- gas gangrene is caused by:
a- clostridium tetani
b- clostridium botulinum
c- clostridium welchii
d- non of the above (( clostridium perfinges ))
325- Bacillary dysentery is caused by:
a- salmonella
b- shigella
c- cholera
d- all of the above
326- the cause of plague:
a- Y-enterocolitica
b- Y-pestis
c- Y pseudot****culsois
d- non of the above
327- treponema palladium is the cause of :
a- T.B
b- gonorrhea
c- syphilis
d- AIDS
328- the venereal disease research laboratory test (VDRL) is done for diagnosis of:
a- T.B
b- gonorrhea
c- syphilis
d- AIDS
329- Trachoma is caused by:
a- ***oplasma
b- chlamydiae
c-richettsia
d- ***obacteria
391- M-t****culsis bacilli stain with :
a- gram stain
b- Zheil Nelson stain
c- Gimesa stain
d- all of the above
392- AIDS is transmitted through :
a- food
b- *****
c- semen
d- (b) & (c)
393- bacteria which cause syphilis:
a- Neisseria gonorrhea
b- Viencent angina
c- Treponema palladium
d- Yersinia pestis
394- to diagnose syphilis:
a- RPR
b- VDRL
c- Wasserman
d- all of the above
395- streptococci secret:
a- streptolysin O
b- streptolysin S
c- streptokinase
d- all of the above
396- disease caused by streptococci:
a- scarlet fever
b- purperal sepsis
c- rheumatic fever
d- all of the above
397- staphylococci secrets:
a- coagulase enzyme
b- fibrinolysin
c- hyaluronidase
d- all of the above
398- gram positive bacilli:
a- Klebsilla
b- Salmonella
c- Proteus
d- C-diphtheria
399- meningeococcal meningitis is transmitted by :
a- food
b- droplet
c- touch
d- all of the above
400- dark field microscopy is used to diagnose :
a- T.B.
b- syphilis
c- gonorrhea
d- AIDS