401- it cause food poisining with flacid paralysis:
a- clostridium tetani
b- clostridium welchii
c- clostridium botulinium
d- all of the above
402- the infective stage of plasmodium vivax :
a-merozoites
b- sporozoites
c- schizont
d- trophozoite
403- Pirenella conica snail is the intermediate host of:
a- schistosoma haematobium
b- fasciola hiptica
c- heterphyes heterophyes
d- diphyllobothrium latum
404- Bulinus truncates snail is the intermediate host of :
a- fasciola hepatica
b- fasciola gigantica
c- schistosoma haematobium
d- schistosoma mansonii
405- to isolate meningiococci we have to culture the sample on:
a- Bordet Gengou
b- modified Thayer martin media
c- Lowenstein Jensen media
d- all of the above
406- to isolate fungi :
a- Brain-Heart infusion media
b- tissue culture
c- Lowenstein –Jensen media
d- chocolate agar
407- to isolate H- influenza:
a- ***** agar
b- chocolate agar
c- mac Conkey media
d- all of the above
408- the bacteria which cause pseudomembrainous conjunctivitis :
a- N.gonorrhea
b- C. diphtheria
c- staphylococcus
d- Chlamydia
409- the best sample to diagnose meningitis :
a- *****
b- sputum
c- CSF
d- urine
410- used to stain Chlamydia
a- gram stain
b- giemsa stain
c- wright stain
d- all of the above
411-……….. is used as transport medium for sample in which cholera is suspected
a- Cary-Blair media
b- Stuart media
c- Alkaline peptone water
d- glycerol
412- the color of XLD medium:
a- green
b- red
c- yellow
d- blue
413- CIN medium is used to isolate:
a- E.coli
b- Vibrio cholera
c- yersinia
d- salmonella
414- to make wet mount preparation:
a- 10 % KOH
b- 10 % Na OH
c- 10 % Na CO3
d- 10% Na Cl
415- we do wet mount preparation for vaginal smear To diagnose:
a- T.vaginalis
b- N.gonorrhea
c- streptococci
d- staphylococci
416- to isolate viruses:
a- Loeffler media
b- tissue culture
c- Bordet –Gengou media
d- Brain- Heart infusion
417- to diagnose whooping cough :
a- Bordet –Gengou media
b- Lowenstein –Jensen media
c- modified Thayer martin media
d- New York city agar
418- to diagnose systemic infection we do :
a- urine culture
b- CSF culture
c- ***** culture
d- sputum culture
419- we give no growth for ***** culture after:
a- 1 week
b- 8 weeks
c- 6 weeks
d- 3 weeks
420- to dissolve mucous in sputum sample :
a- 10% NaOH
b- 30 % NaOH
c- 10 % KOH
d- 10% NaCl
421- mutualism means:
a- one partener benefits , other unaffected
b- both partner benefit
c- one partner benefit , other damaged
d- living together
422- Commensalisms means:
a- living together
b- one partner benefit , other damaged
c- both partner benefit
d- one partner benefits , other unaffected
423- Balantidium coli moves by:
a- flagella
b- cilia
d- pseudopod
d- all of the above
424- Mouth inhabitant:
a- Trichomonas hominis
b- Trichomonas tenax
c- Trichomonas vaginalis
d- giardia lamblia
425- Transmitted by sexual intercourse:
a- toxoplasma
b- giardia lamblia
c- Trichomonas vaginalis
d- all of the above
465- citrate utilization test is done to assist identification of:
a- gram +ve bacteria
b- gram –ve bacteria
c- entrobacteria
d- enterococcus
466- the Kovac's reagent used in the following biochemical tests:
a- catalase
b- coagulase
c- indole
d- methyl red
467- positive results for H2S production appear as …. Colour:
a- black
c- yellow
c- red
d- green
468-………. Give positive coagulase test:
a- streptococci
b- staphylococcus aureus
c- staphylococcus saprophyticus
d- Escherichia coli
469- methyl red test is performed with:
a- Erlich reagent
b- Kovac's reagent
c- Voges proskaur
d- non of the above
470- ………… give positive result with urease test:
a- salmonella
b- shigella
c- Y. enterocolitica
d- all of the above
471-…………. test is used to differentiate between bacteroides & brucella:
a- indole
b- methyl red
c- H2S production
d- nitrate reduction
472- DNAase test is positive with:
a- streptococcus pneumonia
b- E.coli
c- staphylococcus aureus
d- staphylococcus epidermis
473- ………… solution used in the gram stain technique acts as a mordant:
a- crystal violet
b- safranine
c- iodine
d- alcohol
474- the counter stain in Ziehl- Neelson stain is :
a- malachite green
b- methylene blue
c- iodine
d- (a) & (b)
475- bile solubility test is positive with :
a- streptococcus viridans
b- streptococcus pneumonia
c- streptococcus agalectiae
d- streptococcus pyrogenes
476-litmus milk decolorization test assist the identification of :
a- entrobacteria
b- bacteroides
c- brucella
d- enterococci
CHEMISTRY
330- ………….. are substance produced by specialized cells of the body and carried by ***** stream where it affect other specialized cells:
a- vitamins
b- enzymes
c- isoenzyme
d- hormones
331- …………… is a protein which catalyse one or more specific biochemical reaction and not consumed during the reaction:
a- enzymes
b- hormones
c- vitamins
d- proteins
332- ………… is required in the hepatic synthesis of prothrombin and the ***** clotting factors and it’s deficiency is observed in newborn infants:
a- vitamin E
b- vitamin A
c- vitamin K
d- vitamin D
333- there are enzymes that catalyze the same reaction but differ in there physical properties:
a- vitamins
b- adjuvents
c- isoenzyme
d- hormones
334- it’s functionis to maintain adequate serum level of calcium:
a- vitamin E
b- vitamin A
c- vitamin K
d- vitamin D
335-the inhibitor and substrate bind at different sites on the enzyme this type of inhibition is called:
a- competitive inhibition
b- non competitive inhibition
c- surface recognition
d- product concentration
336- ……….. found in cartilage consist of a core protein to which the linear carbohydrates chain are covalently attached:
a- glycoprotein
b- proteoglycan
c- link protein
d- hyaluronic acid
337- …………… is synthesized only by micro-organism , it’s not present in plants but present in liver , it’s deficiency leads to pernicious anemia:
a- vit C
b- vit B12
c-vit B1
d- vit B2
338- the brown color of the stool is due to the presence of:
a- urobilinogen
b- urobilin
c- porphyrin
d- bilirubin
339- the degradation of heme takes place in the …………. particularly in the liver and spleen
a- reticulocytes
b- erythrocytes
c- reticuloendothelial cells
d- non of the above
340- increased Hb destruction , the liver is unable to cup the greater load of pigment and bilirubin level well rises this is called :
a- hepatogenous jaundice
b- hemolytic jaundice
c- obstructive jaundice
d- non of the above
341- ………… plays a role in visual cycle it’s deficiency leads to night blindness, β-carotene is the major precursor of this vitamin in human:
a- vitamin E
b- vitamin A
c- vitamin K
d- vitamin D
342- a large percentage of the ……….. requirement in humans is supplied by intestinal bacteria:
a- biotin
b- niacin
c- folic acid
d- thiamin
343- ………….. are organic compounds required by the body in trace amount , can’t be synthesized by humans , but supplied by diet:
a- enzymes
b- vitamins
c- hormones
d- proteins
344- it facilitate the absorption of iron by reducing it to ferrus state in the stomach and it’s deficiency result in scurvy:
a- vit C
b- vit B
c- vit D
d- vit A
345- it’s function is to transport oxygen from the lung to the tissue:
a- haptoglobin
b- hemoglobin
c- bilirubin
d- myoglobin
346- ………….. act as an antioxidant and it’s deficiency cause liver degeneration:
a- vit E
b- vit A
c- vit K
d- vit D
347- it’s caused by liver parenchyma damage , the excretion of bile greatly decreased and the concentration of bilirubin in the ***** rise :
a- hemolytic jaundice
b- hepatogenous jaundice
c- obstructive jaundice
d- non of the above
348- ……… play an essential role in body metabolism , a deficiency or excess may lead to serious dearrangement of body **********
a- enzymes
b- hormones
c- vitamins
d- isoenzymes
349- …………. will interfere with the chemical determination of bilirubin , giving high variable results:
a- hemolysis
b- hemoglobin
c- vitamins
d- hormones
350- in hemolytic jaundice there will be increase ……………. in serum:
a- direct bilirubin
b- indirect bilirubin
c- total bilirubin
d- all of the above
351- the inhibitor binds reversibly to the same site on the enzyme that the substrate nor****y occupy , this type of inhibition is called :
a- competitive inhibition
b- non competitive inhibition
c- surface recognition
d- product concentration
352- regulation of ***** glucose level can be achieved by :
a- hormonal mechanism
b- hepatic and renal mechanism
c- (a) & (b)
d- non of the above
353- insulin is a hormone secretes by :
a- α cell of islet of langerhans in pancreas
b- β cell of islet of langerhans in pancreas
c- suprarenal cortex
d- non of the above
354- cholesterol is a component of all cell membrane and it’s the precursor of :
a- bile acid
b- steroid hormones
c- vit D
d- all of the above
355- anti diuretic hormone ( ADH) secretion is controlled by:
a- rennin angiotensin
b- plasma osmlality
c- (a) & (b)
d- non of the above
356- the electrophoresis is based on differential migration of :
a- charged particles
b- uncharged particles
c- molecular weight
d- (a) & (b)
357- acid base balance is regulated by :
a- oxygen concentration
b- hydrogen ion concentration
c- nitrogen ion concentration
d- (a) & (b)
358- it’s an increase in hydrogen ion concentration of the *****:
a- acidosis
b- alkalosis
c- acid base balance
d- (a) & (b)
359- over production of acid associated with :
a- diabetes mellitus
b- lactic acidosis
c- methanol poisoning
d- all of the above
360- serum bicarbonate is decreased in:
a- respiratory acidosis
b- metabolic acidosis
c- renal tubular acidosis
d- all of the above
361- chronic deficiency in dietry calcium can lead to :
a- anemia
b- bronchial asthma
c- osteoporosis
d- non of the above
362- ………… is due to decrease ***** CO2:
a- metabolic acidosis
b- respiratory acidosis
c- respiratory alkalosis
d- metabolic acidosis
363- …………. is the most important factor affecting body sodium content:
a- aldosteron secretion
b- antidiuretic hormone
c- testosterone
d- all of the above
364- haemosiderosis is :
a- increase iron store
b- decrease iron store
c- increase hemoglobin
d- decrease hemoglobin
365- if there’s a mixture of protein ( colloids) and salt
( crystalloid) they can be separated by :
a- precipitation
b- dialysis
c- chromatography
d- electrophoresis
366- the predominant cation in intracellular fluid is :
a- sodium
b- potassium
c- calcium
d- phosphorus
367- metabolic acidosis is due to :
a- failure to secret acid
b- bronchial asthma
c- loss of bicarbonate
d- (a) &(c)
368- high level of plasma ferritin may occur due to :
a- inflammatory condition
b- malignant disease
c- liver disease
d- all of the above
369- gonadal hormones estimation is important in :
a- detection of ovulation
b- assessment of amenorrhea
c- evaluation of delayed p****ty
d- all of the above
370- the secretion of gonadal hormone is controlled by :
a- LH
b- FSH
c- TSH
d- (a) & (b)
371- the intensity of the color is directly proportional to the ………. of the analyte in the solution:
a- dilution
b- contamination
c- concentration
d- observation
372- the ………… contain information of any health or safety rich associated with use or exposure to hazardous chemicals:
a- MSDS
b- NFPA
c- POLT
d- OSHA
373- instraument used to measure color changes in the labs:
a- microscope
b- centrifuge
c- photometer
d- all of the above
374- the color coded signs used to identify flammable chemicals:
a- blue
b- yellow
c- white
d- red
375- quality assurance includes :
a- personal orientation
b- laboratory documentation
c- knowledge of laboratory istraumentation
d- all of the above
376- the laboratory procedure manual *******:
a- patient preparation
b- specimen collection & processing
c- specimen preservation , storage & transport
d- all of the above
377- the principal of reflectance photometer
a- measure the amount of light that pass through the solution
b- measure the amount of light that the solution absorbs
c- (a) & (b)
d- non of the above
378- the ***** cell counter ******* :
a- aperture impedence cell counter
b- Geiger counter
c- microscopes
d- all of the above
379- it is mession is to save lives , prevent injuries , and protect health of all ******* in the lab. :
a- MSDS
b- NFPA
c- POLT
d- OSHA
380- ……………. requires 3 hours at 140 C ْ or 1 hour at 160 C ْ for complete sterilization
a- hot air oven
b- autoclave
c- filteration
d- all of the above
381- arterial ***** samples are essential to do :
a- CBC
b- urea
c-***** glucose
d- ***** gas analysis
382- vaccum tubes with green stopper contain:
a- EDTA
b- sodium citrate
c- heparin
c- no anticoagulant
383- serum separator tube is all of the following except:
a- contain gel that separate serum from cells during centrifugation
b- contain clot activator to speed clot formation
c- has red & black mottled top stopper
d- used for coagulation tests
384- for phlepotomy we use all of the following except:
a- the hypodermic needle & syringe
b- the vaccum tube system
c- the monolet lancets
d- the winged infusion set
385- lab. equipment should be cleaned and disinfected with :
a- hypochlorite
b- formaldehyde
c- glutaraldehyde
d- (b) & (c)
386- any ***** split in the lab should be immediately swabbed with :
a- hypochlorite
b- alcohol
c- soap
d- water
387- CBC is performed using:
a- serum
b- well mixed EDTA whole *****
c- plasma
d- non of the above
388- which tube should be filled first in ***** collection:
a- tubes with anticoagulant
b- tube without anticoagulant
c- tubes for ***** culture
d- non of the above
389- the monojector is designed to be used with :
a- the monolet lancet
b- tenderlett
c- tenderfoot
d- non of the above
390- the site of choice for capillary puncture in newborns is :
a- the earlobe
b- middle finger
c- the big toe
d- the lateral medial planter heel surface
PARASITOLOGY
426- Intermediate host of Trypansom:
a- triatoma megista
b- sand fly
c- tse tse fly
d- anopheles
427- The cause of chaga's disease:
a- trypanosoma gambiense
b- trypansoma rhodesiense
c- trypansoma cruzi
d- leishmania braziliense
428- The cause of sleeping sickness:
a- trypanosoma gambiense
b- trypanosoma cruzi
c- trypanosoma rhodesiense
d- (a) & (c)
429- Cause Kala- azar:
a- leishmania tropica
b- leishmania braziliense
c- leishmania donovani
d- leishmania mexicana
430-cause oriental sore:
a- plasmodium ovale
b- leishmania tropica
c- leishmania donovani
d- trypanosoma rhodesiense
431- Its trophozite is shaped like a pear , has the 2 nuclei that resembles eyes and 4 pairs of flagella that look like hair:
a- Trichomonas vaginalis
b- entameoba histolytica
c- giardia lamblia
d- endolimax nana
432- Pear shaped trophozite with 4 anterior flagella and a 5th forming the outer edge of a short undulating membrane:
a- Trichomonas hominis
b- entameoba histolytica
c- entameoba coli
d- endolimax nana
433- sometimes it cause metastatic infection which involve liver, lung, brain or other viscera:
a- giardia lamblia
b- Trichomonas vaginalis
c- entameoba histolytica
d- balantidium coli
434- Intestinal ciliate:
a- entameoba histolytica
b- entameoba coli
c- giardia lamblia
d- balantidium coli
435- Asexual multiplication of plasmodium vivax takes place in:
a- anopheles
b- sand fly
c- human
c- tse tse fly
436- Plasmodium falciparam is transmitted by :
a- triatoma megista
b- tse tse fly
c- anopheles
d- sand fly
437- Moves by pseudopods:
a- giardia lamblia
b- balantidium coli
c- entameoba histolytica
d- Trichomonas vaginalis
438- it's one of the round worms:
a- schistosoma mansoni
b- schistosoma haematobium
c- ascaris lumbricoides
d- fasciola hepatica
439- it's one of the tape worms:
a- ascaris lumbricoides
b- ancylostoma duodenal
c- trichuris tricura
d- taenia saginata
440- barrel shapped egg, yellow brown in color with a colorless protruding mucoid plug in each end:
a- egg of ascaris lumbricoides
b- egg of ancylostoma duodenal
c- egg of trichuris tricura
d- egg of taenia saginata
441- large oval egg ,pale yellow brown in color has a characteristic side spine & contain a fully developed
miracidium , the worm is:
a- S.mansoni
b- S. hematobium
c- A. duodenal
d- T. solium
442- large oval egg , pale yellow brown in color has an indistinct operculum and contains unsegmented ovum:
a- S. hematobium
b- fasciola hepatica
c- heterophyes heterophyes
d- taenia solium
443- round egg , embryo is surrounded by a thick brown radially striated wall , hooklets are present in the embryo:
a- S. hematobium
b- fasciola hepatica
c- A. duodenal
d- T. solium
444-oval colorless egg,flattened on one side & contains a larvae:
a- hymenelopis diminuta
b- dipylidium caninum
c- entrobius vermicularis
d- taenia saginata
445- the cause of malignant malaria:
a- plasmodium vivax
b- plasmodium ovale
c- plasmodium malaria
d- plasmodium falciparum
446- infection occur when infective filariform larvae penetrate the skin:
a- ascaris lumbricoides
b- ancylostoma duodenal
c- fasciola hepatica
d- heterophyes heterophyes
447- ……..lives in the liver and bile ducts of sheep and cattle:
a- stronyloides stercoralis
b- schistosoma mansoni
c- fasciola hepatica
d- ancylostoma duodenal
448-segment found in stool which is white & opaque & measures 20 mm long by 6mm wide with uterus that has a central stem and more than 13 side branches on each side…the worm is :
a- fasciola hepatica
b- trichuris trichuris
c- heterophyes heterophyes
d- taenia saginata
449- infection is by eating raw or under ****ed fish:
a- fasciola hepatica
b- trichuris trichuris
c- heterophyes heterophyes
d- taenia solium
450- …… is transmitted by eating raw or under ****ed beef:
a- heterophyes heterophyes
b- taenia saginata
c- schistosoma mansoni
d- ancylostoma duodenal
BODY FLUID
451- urine output < 400 ml/24 hours is :
a- polyuria
b- anuria
c- oligouria
d- non of the above
452- precipitation of urates takes place in:
a- acidic urine
b- alkaline urine
c- neutral urine
d- all of the above
453- it's one of the causes of persistently acidic urine:
a- urinary tract infection
b- phenylketonurea
c- excessive bicarbonate ingestion
d- excessive ingestion of soda
454- common cause of proteinuria:
a- alcoholism
b- fasting > 18 hours
c- diabetes mellitus
d- Bence- Jones proteins
455- dipstick detect acetoacetic acid & acetone which react with:
a- peroxides
b- nitroprusside
c- diazo compounds
d- indoxyl esters
456- in dipstick bilirubin reacts with :
a- nitroprusside
b- peroxides
c- indoxyl esters
d- diazo compounds
457- among the common cause of hematouria:
a- urogenital carcinoma
b- diabetes mellitus
c- heavy exercise
d- metabolic disorder
458- large number of hyaline cast indicated:
a- acute pyelonephritis
b- proliferative glomerulonephritis
c- heart failure
d- all of the above
459- red cell casts indicates:
a- acute pyelonephritis
b- proliferative glomerulonephritis
c- heart failure
d- all of the above
460- crystals which look like envelope :
a- triple phosphate
b- cystine
c- uric acid
d- calcium oxalate
461- Biuret test is done to determine:
a- glucose b- pentose
c- protein d- galactose
462- the 1st tube of syn***al fluid is for:
a- hematology b- chemistry
c- microbiology d- microscopy
463- square plate like crystals with notched corners in syn***al fluid indicate:
a- uric acid b- calcium pyrophosphate
c- cholesterol d- monosodium urate
464- abnormal forms in semen should not exceed:
a- 10 % b- 5 %
c- 25 % d- 50 %
Lab.Management
477-The process of getting things done through and with people operating in organized group toward a common goal is the
a- management
b- Organization
c- Planning
d- None of the above
478- Primary objectives in the planning are directed to
a- the laboratory as a whole
b- Increase the efficiency in the performance of the lab. test
c- Decrease the costs in the performance of the lab. test
d- All of the above
479- Forecasting needs for staff personnel means
a-Prediction in relation to the kind of technician and technologist who will be working in the lab.
b- Plan for the full utilization of efficient use of instrument
c- Plan for the full use of space in the lab.
d- None of the above
480-An organization
a- Is formed when 2 or more persons are brought together to achieve a common goal
b- Is closely related to planning
c- Involves structuring activities and functions within institutions to
achieve the goals and objects
d- all of the above
481- The real behavior and relationships of organization members usually differ from their planned behavior and relationships. It is
a- Formal organization
b- Informal organization
c- Space utilization
d- None of the above
482- The intra lab. System includes the following except
a- Calendar format
b- Histogram format
c- out of limits report sheet
d- Proficiency testing and computer program
483- The out of limits report form pr***des
a- Space for recording reagents changes
b- Control lot number changes
c- Serve as a general "dairy" of the test methodology
d- All of the above
484- Patient preparation, specimen collection and technical performance of lab. test are general categories of…………..
a- Planning
b- Utilization of space
c- Work flow
d- Quality control
485-floor book manual includes the following except
a- Test name
b- Sample fluid
c- Minimum volume
d- Proper procedures for collecting routine and special tests
486- Collection procedure manual involve
a- ***** collection from pediatric patients
b- Intensive care ***** collection
c- Isolation techniques for lab. Personnel
d- All of the above
487-On the container and \or lab requisition
a- Patient's full name should be put
b- Hospital number should be put
c- Date of collection should be put
d- All of the above
488 Accuracy referred to the following except
a- Correctness and exactness of the test
b- Closeness of the test to the true value
c- True value determined by com*****on to a standard
d- reproducibility
489- Regarding precision the following is true except
a- Reproducibility
b- Closeness of the test results to one another when using the same specimen
c- In the clinical lab it is expressed as (SD) and ***fficient of variation
d- The capability of the method to detect a s**** amount of substance with some assurance
490- Reliability is
a- The ability of a method to measure only that substance being tested
b- The ability of the test method to maintain its accuracy despite of
extraneous circumstances
c- The ability of the method to maintain accuracy, precision and ruggedness
d- None of the above
491- …………….. This symbol in the flow chart means
a- Beginning process
b- Decision
c- Manual operation
d- Decision mod
492- This symbol in the flow chart means ( )
a-Beginning process
b- Decision
c- Direction flow
d- Document
493- Work load on which personnel requirements are usually based is influenced by
a- changes in volume
b- Test mix
c- Patient population
d- All of the above
494- The physical features of the lab. one of the measures of
a- forecasting of personnel needs
b- Assessment of space utilization
c- Time management
d- None of the above
495- If P (E) is the probability of E we may express this definition as
a- P (E) = m\N
b- P (E) = N\m
c- P (E) = m X N
d- None of the above
496- When a test indicates a positive status when the true status is negative it is called
a- positive test
b- False positive test
c- Negative test
d- False negative test
497- The specificity of a test
a- The probability of a positive test results or (presence of the symptoms) given the presence of the disease
b- The probability of a negative test results or (absence of the symptoms) given the absence of the disease
c- a and b
d-None of the above
498- The largest collection of entities for which we have an interest at a particular time is called
a- Population
b- Sample
c- Data
d-All of the above
499- A sample is
a- A part of a population
b- The whole population
c- Endless population
d- None of the above
500- If we have 100 students and they are ranked by age beginning with the 4th student, every tenth student is chosen (the student no. 4 then 14 and 24 and so on) this type of sample is called
a- Systemically selected sample
b- A stratified selected sample
c- Simple random sample
d- Cluster selected sample
501-A point estimate is
a- A single numerical value used to estimate the corresponding population *********
b- Tow numerical values defining a range of values ******* the ********* being estimated
c- a and b
d- None of the above
502-A statistical inference is
a- A procedure by which we ***** a conclusion about population based on the information obtained from the sample drawn from it
b- The cause behind estimation in the health science fields
c- Calculated data from the data of the sample that are approximation of the corresponding *********
d- None of the above
503- Estimator is
a- the rule that tells us how to compute the single value which is called estimate
b- Two numerical values defining the range of values
c- a, b
d- None of the above
504 The table which shows the way in which values of the variables are distributed among the specified class interval is called
a- Relative frequency
b- Ordered array
c- Frequency table
c- None of the above
505- The following are the ages of 5 patients seen in the emergency room in certain day 35, 30, 55, 40, 25 years the mean of their ages is
a- 37 years
b- 30 years
c- 39 years
d- 40 years
506- A mathematical tool designed to facilitate complex clinical decision in which many variables must be considered spontaneously is called
a- Reference value
b- Decision analysis
c- Quality assurance
d- None of the above