101 – A common side effect of the administration of nitroglycerin is
a- headache
b- altered mental status
c- hypovolemia
d- diaphoreses
102 – EMTs may use AEDs under the authority of the
a- medical director's license
b- red cross
c- American heart Association
d- Paramedic supervisor
103 - The second wave from of the ECG that represents the contraction of the ventricles and the main contraction of the heart is called the
a- QRS complex
b- T wave
c- P wave
d- PR interval
104 – Insulin can best be described as a(n)
a- amino acid
b- ***** sugar
c- hormone
d- platelet
105 – The organ(s) responsible for the production of insulin is (are) the
a- liver
b- pancreas
c- ******s
d- spleen
106 - The simple form of sugar that is the body's main source of energy is
a- insulin
b-adrenalin
c- glucose
d- diabanese
107 - glucose is administrated in the form of a
a- tablet
b- suspension
c- liquid for injection
d- gel
108 – Use the following memory aid to gather a history from a patient with an altered mental status
a- SAMPLE
b- START
c- AVPU
d- DCAP- BTLS
109 - The type of diabetes that require a patient to inject insulin daily is
a- type 1
b- maturity –onset diabetes
c- type II
d- diabetic ketoacidosis
110 – If a patient hse excessive thirst , breath with a ****** odor , and warm ,dry skin, you would suspect .
a-hypoglycemia
b- hyperglycemia
c- epilepsy
d- cerebal edema
111 – All of the following are medications often taken by diabetics except
a- glynase
b- nitroglycerin
c- humalog
d- Orinase
112 – Proper administration of oral glucose usually products
a-headache
b- diaphoresis
c- bradycardia
d- no side effects
113 – What action does oral glucose usually produces
a- decreases ***** sugar
b-decreases insulin level
c- increase ***** sugar
d- increase insulin level
114 – Which of the following is a contraindication to the administration of oral glucose ?
a- history of diabetes
b- trauma
c- altered mental status
d- unresponsiveness
115 – Paralysis that affects both lower extremities is called
a- paraplegia
b- monoplegia
c- quadriplegia
d- hemiplegia
116 – The process of clot formation is referred to as
a- lordosis
b- embolism
c- thrombosis
d- hemorrhagia
117 - The medical term for loss of speech is
a- aphasia
b- plegia
c- anesthesia
d- paralysis
118 - Because of its similarity to a heart attack , a stroke is also referred to as a
a- brain attack
b- brain arrhythmia
c- heart stroke
d- brain infraction
119 - If the possible stroke emergency patient is unable to protect her own airway because of a reduction in her mental status , she should be placed in what position ?
a- shock
b- prone
c- left lateral recumbent
d- trendelenberg
120 – A sudden and temporary alteration in brain function caused by massive electrical discharge in a group of nerve cells in the brain is called
a- a convulsion
b- postictal activity
c- a seizure
d- dysrhythmais
121 – The chronic brain disorder that is characterized by recurrent seizures is called
a- the aura
b- epilepsy
c- CVA
d- postictal activity .
122 – The period following a seizure in which the patient may be unresponsive , extremely, sleepy, weak, and disoriented is called the
a- grand mal state
b- tonic phase
c- postical state
d- clonic phase
123 – Many patients will tell the EMT that they knew they were going to seize because of the
a- tonic phase
b- clonic phase
c- postical state
d- aura
124 - The period following a seizure when the patient's muscles become contracted and tense with arching of the back is called the
a- tonic phase
b- clonic phase
c- postical state
d- aura
125 - The period following a seizure when muscles spam and then relax, producing violent and jerky activity , is called the
a- clonic phase
b- aura
c- tonic phase
d- postical state
126 – The type of seizure most common in children between 6 months and 6 years old that is caused by high fever is called a(n)……………. seizure
a- absence (petit mal)
b- grand mal
c- febrile
d- complex partial
127 – All of the following are common medications used in the treatment of epilepsy except
a- dilantin
b- insulin
c- mysoline
d- Phenobarbital
128 – The term for weakness on one side of the body is
a- aphasia
b- hemiparalysis
c- dysphasia
d- hemiparesis
129 – A severe form of allergic reaction is called
a- an allergen
b- epinephrine
c- anaphylaxis
d- an immune reaction
130 – An EMT who notices that his hands are red and itchy after a call may be experiencing an allergic reaction to
a- latex gloves
b- exercise
c – talcum powder
d- heat exposure
131 - Signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction ******* all of the following except
a- itching
b-decrease ***** pressure
c- increase appetite
d- watery eyes
132 - A sign of a severe allergic reaction is
a- runny nose
b- mild edema
c- cyanosis
d- malaise
133 – Epinephrine is most commonly administered as a(n)
a- tablet
b- prescribed inhaler
c- gel
d- auto-injector
134 – Any substance liquid, solid, or gas that impairs health or causes death by its chemical action when it enters the body or comes into contact with the skin is called a(n)
a- allergen
b- antigen
c- poison
d- caustic
135 – Carbon monoxide is an example of an …………….poison
a- ingested
b- absorbed
c- inhaled
d- injected
136 – Use of activated charcoal is indicated in some cases of …………poisoning
a- injected
b- absorbed
c- inhaled
d- ingested
137 – Activated charcoal is administered in the form of a(n)
a- tablet
b- gel
c- suspension
d- inhaler
138 – All of the following are trade names for activated charcoal except
a- super-Char
b- liquid-Char
c-Char- Coal
d- Actidose
139 – In treating cases of inhaled poisons, the drug of first choice is
a- activated charcoal
b- glucose
c- syrup of ipecac
d- oxygen
140 – The most common source of injected poisons are
a- *****
b- plants
c- ****s and stings
d- over the counter medication
141 – The self-administration of ***** (or of a single dose ) in a manner that is not in accord with approved medical or social patterns is called
a- an overdose
b- withdrawal
c- drug abuse
d- dependence
142 – Alcohol withdrawal syndrome is characterized by all of the following signs and symptoms except
a- insomnia
b- hypoxia
c- seizures
d- anorexia
143 – All of the following vital organs are located in the abdominal cavity except the
a- stomach
b- lungs
c- gallbladder
d-abdominal aorta
144 – In the abdominal cavity there is a pear shaped sac that holds bile, which aids in the digestion of fats . it is called the
a- duodenum
b- Pancreases
c- spleen
d- gallbladder
145 - Pain that is felt in a body part removed from its point of origin is called……….pain
a- referred
b- radiating
c- ghosted
d- provoked
146 – An abdominal wall muscle contraction that the patient cannot control, resulting from inflammation of the peritoneum , is called involuntary
a- rigidity
b- protecting
c- guarding
d- posturing
147 – A protrusion or thrusting forward of a portion of the intestine through on opening or weakness in the abdominal wall is called
a- appendicitis
b- cholecystitis
c- ulceration
d- hernia
148 – Sudden onset of severe ,constant abdominal pain that may radiateto lower back ,flank, pelvis, and is usually described as a "tearing " pain is a common symptom of a(n)
a- abdominal aortic aneurysm
b- ulcer
c- appendicitis
d- hernia
149 – The sac like structure that acts as a reservoir for the urine received from the ******s is the
a- spleen
b- liver
c- bladder
d- pancreas
150 – One of the basic steps in emergency care of acute abdominal pain is
a- given the patient water
b- administration of oxygen
c- administering activated charcoal
d- keeping the patient standing
151 – Inflammation of the gallbladder is commonly associated with the presence of
a- ulcers
b- a hernia
c- pancreatitis
d- gallstones
152 – Ingest ion of alcohol or large amount of food is a common trigger for
a- hernias
b- pancreatitis
c- ulcers
d- esophageal varices
153 – Water chill, which occurs when clothing or the body gets wet , is an example of
a- conduction
b- radiation
c- convection
d- evaporation
154 – All of the following are signs and symptoms of hypothermia except
a- agitation and hyperactivity
b- shivering in early stages
c- loss of motor coordination
d- cool abdominal skin temperature
155 – In pr***ding emergency care steps for the hypothermic patient who is ***** and responsive, an EMT should
a- passively rewarm the extremities
b- pr***de the patient with stimulants
c- get the patient to walk around
d- actively rewarm the patient
156 – Rough handling of a patient with hypothermia may result in
a-apnea
b- ***** clots
c- ventricular fibrillation
d- seizures
157 - Superficial local cold injuries are sometimes referred to as
a- white nose
b- hyperthermia
c- frost touch
d- frost****
158 – A condition in which the stomach fills with water , enlarging the abdomen to the point that in interferes with the ability to inflate the lungs, is called
a- hydrothorax
b- distended pleura
c- water in the lungs
d- gastric distention
159 – The medical condition most likely to cause restlessness and confusion ,cyanosis, and altered mental status is
a- excessive heat
b- excessive cold
c- inadequate ***** to the brain
d- lack of oxygen
160 – In most localities, an EMT cannot legally restrain a patient without orders from
a- dispatch
b- the police
c- the patient's physician
d- the patient's family
161 – The organ that contains the developing fetus is called the
a-cervix
b- uterus
c- vagina
d- placenta
162 – The fetus floats in a bag of waters containing ………….. fluid .
a- placenta
b- umbilical
c- amniotic
d- CSF
163 – The 9 month period of pregnancy is divided to
a- quarters
b- trimesters
c- months
d- halves
164 – A delivery in which the baby's buttocks present first at the vaginal opening is called a ……………. Presentation .
a- breech
b- normal
c- cephalic
d- prolapsed
165 – All of the following are examples of abnormal deliveries except
a- breech presentation
b- prolapsed presentation
c – cephalic presentation
d- abruptio placenta
166 – The term used to describe the point at which the presentation part of the baby first bulges from the vaginal opening is
a- staining
b- placenta preview
c- a *****y show
d- crowing
167 – The third stage of labor ends with the
a- birth of the baby
b- full dilation
c- expulsion of the placenta
d- entry of the baby into the birth canal
168 - The second stage of labor begins when
a- regular contractions start
b- birth of the baby is complete
c- dilation of the cervix occurs
d- the baby enters the birth canal
169 – The placenta is usually delivered after the baby and is called the
a- after birth
b- *****y show
c- womb
d- postpartum
170 – The EMT should clamp, tie, and cut the umbilical cord after
a- it appears
b- the placenta is delivered
c- the baby is delivered
d- its pulsations have ceased
171 – If the pregnant mother gets dizzy and has a drop in ***** pressure when she is in a supine position , the condition is called
a- supine hypotensive syndrome
b- eclampsia
c- supine hypertensive crisis
d- abruptio placenta
172 – The Apgar score of a newborn who can be expected to need only routine care would be
a- -3 to 0
b- 4 to 6
c- 0 to 3
d- 7 to 10
173 – To control vaginal bleeding after birth
a- massage the uterus
b- have the mother squeeze her legs together
c- pack the vagina with gauze dressings
d- don't allow the mother to nurse the baby
174 – If the umbilical cord presents first during delivery
a- pr***de mother with oxygen and transport immediately because the proplem can be handled only at the hospital
b- keep pressure off the cord by placing your gloved hand in the vagina and transport immediately
c- immediately clamp and cut the cord
d- place a mask with high concentration oxygen at the vaginal opening
175 – The term for the energy that is contained in a m***ng body is
a- kinetic
b- potential
c- thermal
d- chemical
176 – An increase in which one of the following causes the greatest increase in kinetic energy ?
a- mass
b- size
c- velocity
d- width
177 – A bullet traveling through a baby part produce a temporary indentation around the bullet's actual path . thus prosis is known as
a- penetration
b- cavitation
c- compression
d- levitation
178 – A ***** vessel that carries oxygen depleted ***** back to the heart is called a (n)
a- capillary
b- vein
c- aorta
d- artery
179 – The Insufficient supply of oxygen and other nutrients to the body 's cell is known as
a- perfusion
b- hypoperfusion
c- avulsion
d- apnea
180 – The first step that an EMT should take when encountering a patient with sever bleeding is to
a- apply pressure to the wound
b- utilize appropriate BSI precautions
c- check the patient 's ***** pressure
d- apply a tourniquet
181 – The type of bleeding that is often the most difficult to control is ………..bleeding
a- arterial
b- capillary
c- venous
d- " oozing "
182 – All of the following are signs of shock expect
a- altered mental status
b- warm, dry skin
c- nausea and vomiting
d- vital sign change
183 – after taking BSI precautions, the next step an EMT should take in treating cases of profuse bleeding is to
a- elevated the extremity
b- apply bandaging
c- apply a dressing
d- apply direct pressure
184 – The last resort in controlling external bleeding is
a- direct pressure
b- cold application
c- use of pressure points
d- use of a tourniquet
185 – Vomiting of ***** the color of dark coffee grounds is a sign of
a- external bleeding
b- internal bleeding
c- epistaxis
d- cardiogenic shock
186 – The type of shock most commonly caused bu profound ***** or fluid loss is……… shock.
a- hypovolemic
b- vasogenic
c- cardiogenic
d- irreversible
187 – signs of arterial bleeding ******* ………..*****
a- oozing dark
b- spurting dark
c- oozing bright red
d- spurting bright red
188 – Bleeding from the nose, which can result from injury, disease, or environmental causes is called
a- hypovolemia
b- anaphylaxis
c- epistaxis
d- hematoma
189 – The stage of shock in which the body is able to maintain perfusion and function is called
a- uncompensated
b- irreversible
c- hypovolemia
d- compensatory
190 – The injury that is similar to a contusion except that it usually involves damage to a larger ***** vessels and a larger amount of tissue is a(n)
a- abrasion
b- wound
c- evisceration
d- hematoma
191 – The outer layer of the skin is called the
a- subcutaneous layer
b- dermis
c- cutaneous layer
d- epidermis
192 – All of the following are examples of closed wounds except a(n)
a- contusion
b- crush injury
c-hematoma
d- abrasion
193 – Open wounds in which flaps of skin and tissue are torn loose or pulled off completely are called
a- avulsions
b- amputations
c- lacerations
d- punctures
194 – Care for an abrasion is important because of the
a- amount of ***** and fluid lost
b- emotional trauma of the patient
c- underlying soft tissue damage
d- risk of contamination and infection
195 – Open wounds of the abdomen that are so large that organs protrude from them are known as
a- avulsions
b- eviscerations
c- sucking abdominal wounds
d- hematoma
196 – The largest organ of the body is the
a- heart
b- liver
c- skin
d- ******
197 - the major layers of the skin are
a- mid-dermis, dermis, and muscular tissue
b- subcutaneous tissue, mid-dermis, and dermis
c- epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous layer
d-inter dermis, dermis, and subcutaneous layer
198 – when a part of the body is caught between two compressing surface, a ……………injury results .
a- shear
b- penetrating
c- crush
d- stretching
199 – When attempting to control bleeding from an open wound, the first method to attempt is
a- elevation
b- use of pressure points
c- direct pressure
d- a tourniquet
200 – Bleeding control and prevention of a(n) ………..are the major goals of emergency medical care of a large, open neck injury
a- air clot
b- air embolism
c- thrombus
d- ***** clot