251 – The respiratory and circulatory organs are protected by the
a- ribs
b- vena cavae
c- mediastinum
d- clavicles
252 – A flail segment occurs
a- when initiated by paradoxical motion
b- with fracture of two or more ribs in two or more places
c- only from bullet or knife wounds
d- after a pneumothorax
253 – When a patient presents with jugular venous distension, respiratory distress, and hypotension following a closed chest injury, suspect
a- rib fractures
b- subcutaneous emphysema
c- a sucking chest wound
d- a tension pneumothorax
254 – if a patient develops respiratory distress after an occlusive dressing has been applied to a chest wound, the EMT should
a- cover the wound with more dressing
b- lift a corner of the dressing to allow pressure to escape
c- begin assisting breathing with positive pressure ventilation
d- continue monitoring, as this reaction is to be expected
255 – Your patient with an evisceration becomes tachycardic , cool, and hypotensive during transport, your next action should be to
a- replace the dressing
b- support the injury with the patient's arm
c- reevaluate priority status and expedite transport
d- loosing one corner of the dressing
256 – Management of an injury caused by blunt trauma to the scrotum may *******
a- direct pressure
b- oxygen
c- cold compress
d- all of these
257 – Management of a female patient who has suffered a laceration to the genital area will ******* all of the following except
a- direct pressure
b- vaginal packing
c- use of a moistened sanitary pad
d- assessment for hypoperfusion
258 – A pulmonary contusion can be life threatening because it can
a- reduce oxygen exchange via the alveoli
b- cause a hemorrhage into the trachea
c- take up space needed by the heart to contract
d- penetrate the lung
259 – At the scene of a tractor accident, the scene would be declared safe when
a- the EMTs can ***** the patient
b- the tractor is shut down, stabilized, and fuel and hydraulic fluids are controlled
c- all rescue are wearing SCBa
d- a technical rescue unit has *****ed the scene
260 – With a patient who has been injured while using farm machinery, the EMT's first action upon *****ing the patient's side would be to
a- apply high-flow oxygen
b- establish in line stabilization
c- record baseline vital signs
d- flush the patient with water
261 - A patient caught in a grain storage tank for an extended period is likely to suffer from
a- hyperthermia
b- crush injures
c- hypothermia
d- poisoning
262 – Signs and symptoms of pesticide exposure ******* all of the following except
a- hot, dry skin
b- drooling
c- abdominal cramps
d- tearing (crying )
263 – Treatment for a patient who has been bitten on the arm by an animal and who has then slipped on the barn floor should *******
a- application of an occlusive dressing
b- packing of the arm in ice or cold packs
c- flushing of the wound with water before it is dressed
d- assistance in administration of the patient's Epi-pen
264 – The EMT must be aware that pesticides can
a- decompose when expose to air
b- be absorbed through the eyes
c- increase intensity over time
d- cause the release of carbon monoxide
265 – The first step in emergency care for a pediatric patient in shock is
a- pr***ding oxygen
b- keeping the patient warm
c- managing bleeding
d- ensuring an open airway
266 – Approximately 5% of children have seizures caused by
a- fever
b- head injuries
c- epilepsy
d- shock
267 – After a pediatric submersion patient has been removed from the water, you should pr***de ………… while establishing an airway
a- suctioning
b- back blows
c- chest thrusts
d- immobilization
268 – The best place to check for signs of dehydration in the elderly patient is/are the
a- scalp
b- skin of the forearms
c- palms of the hands or soles of the feet
d- mucous membranes of the eyes and mouth
269 – Which one of the following should be performed for an elderly trauma patient regardless of mechanism of injury or level of responsiveness?
a- focused medial exam
b- focused trauma exam
c- rapid trauma assessment
d- historical exam
270 – Ongoing assessment of an elderly patient who is ***** but has an injured arm should take place every ………….. minutes
a- 5
b- 15
c- 10
d- 20
271 – With an elderly patient who has aching in her shoulder, fatigue, and trouble breathing, an EMT should suspect
a- kyphosis
b- arteriosclerosis
c- a heart attack
d- degenerative spinal changes
272 – Efforts to save money by elderly people living on fixed incomes may lead to cases of
a- lordosis
b- hypothermia
c- pulmonary embolus
d- stroke
273 – The EMT's first duty to the patient is to arrive at the scene
a- quickly
b- safely
c- by the most direct route
d- with red lights, horn , and siren
274 – The EMT should not the posted speed limit unless
a- traffic is light
b-the situation is critical
c- traveling on holidays
d- using a police escort
275 – Using a police or other emergency vehicle escort en route to the collision or the hospital should be
a- a last resort
b- used with all critical
c- standard procedure
d-only used at night
276 – The standard color for ambulances is
a- orange
b- yellow
c- red
d- white
277 - At the receiving facility , the complete oral report to appropriate emergency department personal should ******* all of the following except
a- the patient's chief complaint
b- diagnosis of patient's illness
c- any history not given previously
d- vital signs taken en route
278 – When cleaning ambulance is surface where there is no visible ***** or body fluid contamination, the EMT should use
a- a high pressure hose
b- soap and water
c- an infrared lamp
d- an EPA approved germicide
279 – Equipment that will be used invasively should be treated with
a- a 1:100 bleach to water mixture
b- sterilization techniques
c- Lysol
d- a 1:10bleach to water mixture
280 – An operational reason to re quest air rescue is
a- a Glasgow coma scale score of less than 13
b- pronged extrication
c- head injury with altered mental status
d- penetration injury to the body cavity
281 – life saving emergency care , such as airway management and immobilization, should be performed in the …………….zone
a- hot
b- warm
c- containment
d- cold
282 – Radiation contamination occurs when the patient comes into direct contact with radioactive
a- gases
b- liquids
c- particles
d- all of these
283 – A system used for sorting patients to determine the order in which they will receive medical care or transportation to definitive care is called
a- staging
b- triage
c- assessment
d- treatment
284 – A sudden catastrophic event that overwhelms natural order and causes great loss of property and/or life is called a
a-disaster
b- calamity
c- force 10 event MCI
d- tragedy
285 – Which is the most acceptable method of protecting yourself from respiratory exposure?
a- stay away from the exposure
b- use a HEPA or N95 mask
c- put a mask on all patient
d- use SCBA
286 – Never agents work by
a- disrupting an enzyme at the nerve
b- killing the nerve cells
c- causing skin destruction
d- confusing the patient
287 – Cyanide causes deadly effects by
a-paralyzing the victim
b- rem***ng Acth
c- hyperthermia
d- disrupting cellular oxygen use
288 - Hypoperfusion is another name for
a-cyanosis
b- hypertension
c- shock
d- hypoxia
289 – A patient is bleeding from the ears and nose as a result of trauma . you should
a- keeping the patient calm and quiet
b- collect the ***** with a loose dressing
c- pack the ears and nose to slow the ***** flow
d- administer oxygen
290 – The passage of black, tarry stools is known as
a- hematochezia
b- hematuria
c- ecchymosis
d- melena
291 – Which of the following body substance isolation (BSI technique is a simple, yet important protective measure ?
a- mask
b- hand washing
c- gown
d- eye protection
292 – Coughing up bright red ***** is known as
a- hematemesis
b- hematuria
c- hemoptysis
d- hematoma
293 – Which of the following vital signs can be an eaely indicator of shock?
a- increased temperature
b- increase pulse rate
c-increased papillary response
d- increased ***** pressure
294 – The first step of emergency care in the patient with inadequate breathing is
a- manually tabilizing the cervical spine
b- checking for the patient's pulse
c- opening and maintaining the patient's airway
d- looking for and controlling severe bleeding
295 – Signs of inadequate breathing *******
a-wheezing, crowing, or gurgling noises
b- cyanosis of the lips, ear lobes, or nail beds
c- the patient being unable to speak in full sentences
d- all of the above
296 – Which of the following is true regarding suctioning a patient's airway?
a- never suction for longer than 30 seconds
b- suction only as you insert the catheter into the mouth
c- you may hyperventiliate a patient before and after suctioning
d- BSI precaution are not important if there is not visible *****
297 – Patient conditions that may require supplement oxygen *******
a- shock
b- head injury
c- broken bones
d- all of the above
298 – Connective bands of tissue attaching muscle to bone are called
a- fascia
b- ligaments
c- cartilage
d- tendons
299 – The dura mater, pia mater, and arachnoid are layers of tissue that enclose the brain and spinal cord . together, they are called the
a- brain stem
b- meninges
c- motor nerves
d- spinal cord
300 – As you assess a conscious patient, you should examine the lower extremities for
a- strength
b- distraction
c- priapism
d- distension
301 – Spinal cord injury caused by automobile accidents most commonly causes injury to which part of spine ?
a- sacral
b- cervical
c- lumber
d- thoracic
302 – Which of the following structure need to be immobilized above and below a joint injury ?
a- bones
b- joints
c- extremities
d- muscles
303 – Your first step in assessing whether a patient has a possible spinal injury is to
a- question the patient about areas of pain or weakness
b- palpate the spine for deformity or tenderness
c- examine the face and neck for contusions
d- ask the patient to wiggle the toes and fingers
304 – Bleeding may be more than expected with injuries to the
a- nose
b- scalp
c- chest
d- forearm
305 – The area of the head that contains and protects the brain is called the
a- cerebrum
b- cerebellum
c- clavicle
d- cranium
306 – Injuries of the lower extremities may indicate a problem with what area of the spine ?
a- cervical
b- lumber
c- coccygeal
d- thoracic
307 – Applying a splint too tightly can
a- limit mobility
b- enhance circulation
c- reduce apin
d- reduce distal circulation
308 – Once a cervical collar is in place, the collar should support the mandible (lower jaw )and sit on the
a- shoulder girdle
b-upper extremities
c- ribs
d- scapula
309 – Into what two parts in the nervous system divided ?
a- sensory and somatic
b- peripheral and somatic
c- sensory and automatic
d- central and peripheral
310 – The most important observation you can make and record in a patient with a head injury is any change in the
a- ***** pressure and pulse rate
c- level of consciousness
d- neurologic status of the extremities
311 – Which part of the nervous system is an extension of the brain and is protected by the spinal canal ?
a- spinal cord
b- motor nerves
c- meninges
d- brain stem
312 – Muscles allow body :
a- development
b- circulation
c- movement
d- structure
313 – How many vertebrate protect the spinal cord
a- 7
b- 33
c- 31
d- 12
314 – The four major functions of skeletal system ate form, support, movement, and:
a- shape
b- stature
c- locomotion
d- protection
315 – Keeping yourself safe is your first priority when pr***ding medical care as an EMT-B
a- true
b- false
316 – Diseases are caused by pathogens , which may be spread through the air or by contact with ***** and /or body fluids.
a- true
b- false
317 – Organisms that causes infection, such as viruses and bacteria are
a- pathogens
b- venoms
c- poisons
d- toxins
318 – In the practice of prehospital emergency care, all body fluids must be considered infectious
a- true
b- false
319 – Under OSHA guidelines, employers and employees share responsibility for precautions against exposure to *****borne pathogens
a- true
b- false
320 – Gloves, masks, and gowns are examples of
a- HEPA
b- PPE
c- OSHA
d- CDC
321 – It is imperative that the EMT-B changes gloves between every patient contact .
a- true
b- false
322 – Because EMT-Bs wear protective gloves while with patient, hand washing is not essential after each call
a- true
b- false
323 – Which of the following materials is NOT recommended for gloves to be used when there is the potential for contact with ***** and other body fluids ?
a- vinyl
b- cotton
c- latex
d- synthetics
324 – Personal protective equipment includes all of the following except
a- goggles
b- cotton scrub plants
c-a HEPA respirator
d- vinyl gloves
325 – In cases where TB is suspected, use a(n)
a- cotton mask
b- HEPA respirator
c- surgical mask
d- PPD gown
326 – A situation that would usually call for the use of a gown as protection would be one involving
a- a patient with diagnosis of TB
b- a patient with fractured leg
c- venous bleeding
d- childbirth
327 – HIVIAIDS presents a greater risk to health care ******* than hepatitis and TB
a- true
b- false
328 – An infection that causes an inflammation of the liver is
a- TB
b- pneumonia
c- kephosis
d- hepatitis
329 – The test that can detect exposure to t****culosis is the
a- PPD test
b- SAT test
c- Elisa test
d- PSA test
330 – A mother is delivered in her home . The baby's is crowing . you should
a- administer free flow oxygen to the newborn at 10 to 15 liter by minute
b- apply gentle pressure to the mother's abdomen to assist with delivery of the body
c- apply gentle pressure to the head with your fingers to prevent an explosive delivery
d- dry the newborn's head with a sterile dressing
331 – The hollow rogan in the female reproductive system where the fetus grow is called the
a- fallopian tube
b- ovary
c- cervix
d- uterus
332 – Once the baby's head has delivered, you should
a- time and assess the mother's contraction to estimate the length of the delivery
b- massage the mother's uterus to stimulate contraction to deliver the baby's body
c- gentle pull on both sides of the head to assist with delivering of the body
d- clear the airway by suctioning the baby's mouth and nose
333 – When treating a newborn with meconium staining, you should
a- rapidly clamp and cut the cord
b- record the time of the birth
c- suction and manage the air way
d- administer free-flow oxygen
334 – The part of the placenta that carries ***** and nourishment to the fetus is the
a- birth canal
b- peritoneum
c- umbilical
d- amniotic
335 – Which of the following organs is responsible for labor and delivery of the baby ?
a- uterus
b- placenta
c- cervix
d- perineum
336 – After delivering a baby, you should dry the baby completely . what should you do next?
a- cool the baby to stimulate crying
b- warp the baby in sterile saline sheets
c- cool the baby to increase its heart rate
d- warp the baby in a warm blankets
337 – After delivering, you see that the infant's face and trunk are syanotic . The infant is crying and has a pulde of 158/min. You should
a- dry the infant and pr***de free-flow oxygen
b- pr***de ventilations at a rate of 40 per minute
c- cool the baby to increase its circulation
d- calm the infant to slow down its respiration
338 – How do placenta previa and abruption placenta differ?
a- abruption placenta is a reliable sign that the infant is at high risk for an explosive delivery placenta previa signals a slow , painful delivery
b- placenta pervia occurs when the placenta is covering the ervicalios . Abruptio placenta occurs when the placenta separates before delivery of the infant, no matter where it is located
c- abruptio-placenta occurs in early pregnancy . Placenta previa occurs in late pregnancy
d- placenta previa is associated with severe abdominal pain . Abruptio placenta is associated with severe headaches
339 – After birth, you notice the infant's face and trunk appear blue . This is called
a- circumoral cyanosis
b- pallor cyanosis
c- peripheral cyanosis
d- central cyanosis
340 – After the placenta is delivered, it should be
a- wrapped in a towel, keep cool over ice, and transported to the hospital for inspecting
b- examined for missing tissue and then thrown away
c- wrapped tightly with gauze and placed in a Biohazard container
d- wrapped in a towel, placed in a plastic bag, and transported to the hospital for inspection