341 – Placenta previa is a true emergency because
a- the placenta does not deliver and the mother is at a high risk for shock
b- the placenta is abnor****y located in the uterus. It interferes with delivery of the baby, and puts the mother at risk for shock
c- when it happens in early pregnancy, the mother is at a high risk for seizures and shock
d- the placenta is located high in the uterus, the baby is at risk for a fast delivery, and the mother is at risk for shock
342 – Proper card for a premature infant should *******
a- giving oxygen with an infant size face mask
b- placing hot water bottles on the infant to keep it warm
c- warming the patient compartment of the ambulance to 90 degree to 95 degree F .
d- allowing the mother , father, and any other family members to handle the infant .
343 – You arrive at the scene where the mother has already delivered her baby . Your partner is caring for the infant . You note a large ***** loss from the mother, and she appears to sill be bleeding . you should
a- prepare the mother for transport since 1,000 ml of ***** loss normal following delivery
b- let the mother go to the bathroom and then apply vaginal pads around the vagina to soak up the remaining *****
c- massage the uterus by kneading it with your fingers fully extended
d- instruct the mother to lie with her knees drawn up and elevate her buttocks to control the bleeding
344 – What does the term crowing mean?
a- the baby's head is too large for delivery
b- the baby's head is visible at the cervix
c- the perineum has been torn
d- the baby is in a transverse position
345 – The fetus develops inside a fluid-filled, bag like membrane called the:
a- funds
b- placenta
c- cervix
d- amniotic sac
346 – You have delivered an infant who is not breathing . After suctioning and physical stimulation, there are no respirations . You should
a- administer free-flow oxygen
b- start chest compression at a rate of 60 per minute
c- clamp and cut the umbilical cord
d- pr***de ventilations at a rate of 40:60 per minute
347 – Your patient is in active labor . You note that the infant's foot is presenting through the vagina. You should immediately
a- elevate the patient's pelvis and rapidly transport while giving the patient oxygen
b- insert a sterile gloved hand into the vagina to relieve pressure on the umbilical cord
c- prepare the patient for delivery as this is a reliable sign that delivery is coming soon
d- located and massage the uterus by kneading it with your fingers fully extended
348 – The newborn should be placed in which position until the umbilican cord is cut ?
a- on the mother's stomach
b- at the level of the vagina
c- in the father's arms
d- elevated on the pillow
349 – When the baby's head has delivered you should immediately :
a- apply vaginal pads to the perineal area to reduce the ***** loss
b- massage the uterus by kneading it to speed up delivery of the baby's body
c- suction the mouth and nose to clear the infant's airway and check the ******** of the umbilical cord
d- insert a sterile gloved hand into the vagina to relieve pressure around the baby's neck
350 – What is postpartum hemorrhage ?
a- ***** loose caused by abruptio placenta
b- ***** loss in excess of 500 ml during the first 24 h following delivery
c- large ***** loss from the umbilical cord
d- ***** and mucous draining from the vagina at the beginning of labor
351 – Premature infants are at a higher risk for
a- infection
b- breech birth
c- hyperthermia
d- explosive deliveries
352 – Pulmonary resuscitation is essay for a new born if
a- its breathing rapid
b- the breathing rate is greater than 50/min
c- the baby weights more than 7lb
d- breathing is absent
353 – Which of the following organs pr***des mourishment to and removes waste products from the baby?
a- placenta
b- cervix
c- perineum
d- vagina
354 - you have suctioned, dried, and wrapped the newborn in a blanket . the baby is still not breathing . You should stimulate the baby by :
a- holding it with its head slightly higher than its body
b- clamping and sutting the umbilical sheets
c- cooling it off with saline-soaked sheets
d- flicking the soles of the feel and rubbing its back
355 – If a pregnant patient experiences a seizure, you should :
a- massage the uterus to relax any contractions
b- prepare for an immediate delivery
c- perform a rapid assessment, particularly of the airway, and transport the patient on her left side
d- look for vaginal bleeding due to placenta previa
356 – When assisting a ***** during the second stage of labor , you should
a- check for the umbilical cord around the infant's neck once the head is delivered
b- keep constant pressure against the infant's head from the time it presents in vagina until it is delivered
c- allow the infant's head to hang dependent from the vagina without support to help the drainage of fluid from the airway
d- suction the nose and mouth once the infant's body is born
357 – What is the birth canal called?
a- vagina
b- perineum
c- fundus
d- cervix
358 – Clues to congestive heart failure ******* :
a- bradycardia and anxiety
b- embolism
c- swelling and dyspnea
d- pain and discomfort
359 – Signs and symptoms of asthma typically ******* :
a- aphasia
b- decreased pulse rate
c- chest pain
d- wheezing sounds
360 – The skin of a hypoglycemia patient is often :
a- cold and clammy
b- cyanotic
c- warm and dry
d- red
361 – The pancreas produce a hormone called :
a- glucose
b- progesterone
c- insulin
d- pancreatitis
362 – Prolonged seizure activity may cause :
a- hyperglycemia
b- diabetes mellitus
c- epilepsy
d- hypoxia
363 – A fetus grows in the mother's
a- placenta
b- cervix
c- vagina
d- uterus
364 – If after cutting the umbilical cord fetal bleeding continues, you should
a- transport immediately
b- reclamp the cord
c- apply another tie or clamp
d- untie the cord
365 – Profuse bleeding can occur from wounds of the face and scalp because the area is very
a- muscular
b- compact
c- spongy
d- vascular
366 – Which of the following articulates to the hummers ?
a- spine
b- mandible
c- ulna
d- sternum
367 – Which of the following muscle types move bones ?
a- smooth
b- voluntary
c- involuntary
d- unstriated
368 – The medication that is carried by many people at high risk of developing anaphylactic Shock is :
a- insulin
b- aspirin
c- dilantin
d- epinephrine
369 – Uncontrolled diabetes may lead to :
a- psychogenic shock
b- anaphylactic shock
c- neurogenic shock
d- metabolic shock
370 – When body cells receives less oxygen than they need, they are said to be :
a- hypoxic
b- hyperoxic
c- hyperbaric
d- anabolic
371 – Emergency care for an inguinal hernia ******* :
a- pushing the hernia back inside the abdominal wall
b- placing the patient on his stomach
c- applying an ice pack to the hernia site
d- all of the above
372 – When the head of the femur is pulled or pushed from the pelvis socket, the patient experiences a :
a- femur fracture
b- hip fracture
c- hip dis********
d- femur dis********
373 – The structure within the ***** that contains the hemoglobin molecule is the :
a- glucose
b- erythrocyte
c- leukocyte
d- isotonic
374 – The ………………..is the bone in the anterior leg .
a- femur
b- fibula
c- patella
d- tibia
375 – In layman's term, the ………….is called the shoulder blade .
a- radius
b- scapula
c- clavicle
d- ulna
376 – The pulse that is found on the top of the foot is called the …………pulse .
a- posterior fibial
b- medial tibial
c- popiteal
d- dorsal pedis
377 – An open soft tissue wound with smooth, linear edges, is called
a- a laceration
b- a hematoma
c- an incision
d- an abrasion
378 – Loss of sensation due to destruction of nerve endings is associated with:
a- a first-degree burn
b- a second-degree burn
c- a third-degree burn
d- a fourth-degree burn
379 – If the rule of nines is used to calculate the percentage of body surface area burned, the back and buttocks of an adult represent what percentage of body surface area burned?
a- 5%
b- 11%
c- 18 %
d- 1%
380 – If the pediatric rule of nines is used to calculate the percentage of body surface area burned,the anterior leg represent:
a- 18 percent of the patient's body surface area
b- 1 percent of the patient's body surface area
c- 4.5 percent of the patient's body surface area
d- 7 percent of the patient's body surface area
381 – A heart rate of less than 60 per minute is defined as:
a- normocardia
b- bradycardia
c- irregular
d- tachycardia
382 – After ***** enters the heart through the right atrium, which valve does the ***** flow through next?
a- pulmonary valve
b- mitral valve
c- aortic valve
d- tricuspid valve
383 – The thickest chamber of the heart is the:
a- left ventricle
b- left atria
c- right atria
d- right ventricle
384 – The common name " wrist bones (8/wrist) ", has what anatomical name?
a- carpalges
b- carpals
c- phalanges
d- metacarpals
385 – If the ***** vessel the " Great Saphenous " is injured, what area of the body would need to be treated?
a- upper arm
b- abdomen
c- upper leg
d- neck
386 – All of the following can be found in the various layers of the skin except:
a- papilla
b- sebaceous gland
c- bulb
d- lesser omentum
387 – All of the following are part of the digestive system except:
a- hepatic flexure
b- cystic duct
c- pyloric sphincter
d- ducts deferens
388 - All of the following are part of the reproductive system except:
a- psoas muscle
b- labium minus
c- uterus
d- seminal vesicle
389 – The normal range for a child's pulse at age 1:5 years is:
a- 80-150
b- 60-90
c- 60-120
d- 120-180
390 – When a bone is fractured, the damage to ***** vessels, nerves, and other soft tissues may be a greater significance than the fracture .
a- true
b- false
391 – Poisons that are swallowed are:
a- ingested
b- absorbed
c- injected
d- inhaled
392 – The membrane surrounding the brain and spinal cord is the :
a- meninges
b- mesentery
c- peritoneum
d- pleura
393 – In which of the following is there usually no deformity?
a- sprain
b- dis********
c- angulated fracture
d- closed fracture
394 – The formed elements in the ***** carry oxygen are called:
a- white ***** cells
b- red ***** cells
c- albumins
d- platelets
395 – In which quadrant is the liver located:
a- upper right
b- lower right
c- upper left
d- lower left
396 – In which of the following positions should a patient with congestive heart failure be transported?
a- supine with feet elevated
b- sitting up
c- prone
d- supine
397 – When a diabetic goes into diabetic coma, he/she may have:
a- exercised too much
b-taken too much insulin
c- not taken enough insulin
d- not eaten
398 – Biological death:
a- follows clinical death and is not reversible
b- is not reversible
c- begins immediately with cessation of breathing and circulation
d- follows clinical death
399 – Prolapsed umbilical cord describes the condition in which the cord is:
a- wrapped around the baby's neck
b- presenting through the vagina before the baby presents
c- torn loose from the uterus
d- presenting through the vagina after the baby presents
400 – The second stage of labor begins when the:
a- amniotic sac ruptures
b- cervix starts to dilate
c- baby moves into the birth canal
d- placenta delivers
401 – Steps to control maternal bleeding after delivering *******:
a- massaging the uterus
b- letting the baby nurse
c- covering the vaginal opening with a sanitary napkin
d- all of the above
402 – You arrive an scene and find a 69 years old patient who is unable to move his right arm or leg and has unequal pupils, he is probably experiencing:
a- seizure activity
b- a heart attack
c- congestive heart failure
d- a stroke
403 – Anatomically, the term superior in relation to other human body structure is defined as:
a- bigger than
b- better than
c- in front of
d- toward the head
404 – When using the AVPU scale to evaluated a trauma patient, the A stands for:
a- *****
b- agitated
c- anoxic
d- aggressive
405 – With respect to the diaphragm, the lungs are:
a- distal
b- proximal
c- superior
d- anterior
406 – All of the following are signs of shock except:
a- ashen or cyanotic coloration
b- anxiety
c- restlessness
d- constriction of the pupils
407 – The respiratory system contributes to acid-based balance by regulating the retention and elimination of:
a- carbonic acid
b- oxygen
c- carbon dioxide
d- bicarbonate
408 – Bicarbonate is a primary component of the:
a- hemoglobin
b- respiratory system
c- ***** buffers
d- ******s
409 – Which of the following may result from hyperventilation ?
a- respiratory acidosis
b- respiratory alkalosis
c- metabolic alkalosis
d- hypoxemia
410 – A person who has ***** type ……………is called a universal donar.
a- B
b- A
c-AB
d-O
411 – Inspiratory stridor suggest:
a- bronchial
b- lower airway obstructive pulmonary disease
c- chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
d- upper airway obstruction
412 – A medication which decreased a body function or activity is called:
a- stimulant
b- synergism
c- depressant
d- antagonism
413 – A dis******** occurs when:
a- a bone is pulled from it's socket
b- a bone is broken in two places
c- the patient experiences crepitus
d- there is a loss of syn***al fluid
414 – Nifedipine is anti-hypertensive, it is a calcium channel blocker that reduces coronary artery spasm in angina, it also decreased peripheral vascular resistance and ***** pressure. The question is this : should this drug be given to a patient receiving IV beta blockers:
a- yes
b- no
c- depends on amount of beta blocker given
d- non of the above
415 – A heart rate above 120 beats per minute is called:
a- bradycardia
b- tachycardia
c- ventricular fibrillation
d- atrial fibrillation
416 - It is a hot summer day and your squad is sent to a metal foundry for a "mandown" on arrival you find a 22 year old unresponsive male patient . His pulse is rapid, and he is flushed. His skin is hot and dry to the touch. This patient is probably suffering from:
a- heat exhaustion
b- heat stroke
c- diabetic coma
d- insulin shock
417 – Grand mal seizures have three distinct phases-tonic, clonic, and:
a- postictal
b- partial
c- generalized
d- psychomotor
418 – Prolonged seizure activity may cause:
a- epilepsy
b- hypoxia
c- hyperglycemia
d- diabetes mellitus
419 – You are called to a house where a 68 year old female patient is sitting in a chair complaining of difficulty breathing. Her ankles are swollen and she has engorged pulsating neck veins. She is mostly likely showing signs and symptoms of:
a- atherosclerosis
b- hyperventilation
c- congestive heart failure
d- angina attack
420 – A firefight is sufferings from a form of shock brought about by fluid and salt loss . you should classify this condition as :
a- heat cramps
b- hypothermia
c- heat exhaustion
d- heat stroke
421 – If a patient has a history of trauma to the left flank and has pain in that region, which of the following organs might you suspect as being injured?
a- ******
b- heart
c- liver
d- gall bladder
422 – Hemothorax refers to
a- collapse of one half on the lung
b- air in the chest cavity
c- ***** in the chest cavity
d- fluid in the abdomn
423 – Which fracture occurs most often in children because their bones are still pliable?
a- transverse
b- greenstick
c- oblique
d- spiral
424 – The stridor associated with anaphylaxis is caused by ………….
a- mucosal edema
b- bronchodilatation
c- respiratory center depression
d- spasm of the vocal cords
425 – After ***** leaves the right atrium, which valve does the ***** flow through next ?
a- tricuspid valve
b- aortic valve
c- pulmonary valve
d- mitral valve
426 – The most common cause of death during the myocardial infarction is:
a- dysrhythmia
b- cardiac rupture
c- valvular failure
d- muscle loss
427 – Which is the dominant pacemaker of the heart:
a- purkinje system
b- AV node
c- AV junction
d- SA node
428 – The thickest chamber of the heart is the:
a- left atria
b- left ventricle
c- right ventricle
d- right atria
429 – Which of the following is a colloid solution?
a- ringers lactate
b- normal saline
c- dextran
d- all of the above
430 – A known diabetic who is unconscious, pale, clammy skin, with stable vital signs is suffering from:
a- CVA
b- insulin shock
c- diabetic coma
d- acute MI
431 – The beta cells of the pancreas produce:
a- anti-diuretic
b- ACTH
c- insulin hormone
d- Thyroxin hormone
432 – The most significant sign of abdominal injury is:
a- hematuria
b- tenderness
c- rigidity and guarding
d- pain
433 – Lidocaine is usually given for:
a- systole
b- supraventricular tachycardia
c- ventricular tachycardia
d- atrial fibrillation
434 – Anaphylaxis following an insect is treated with:
a- epinephrine
b- Benadryl
c- morphine sulfate
d- aminopyline
435 – Which of the following is not a method of transmission of the hepatitis virus?
a- *****
b- feces
c- saliva
d- sexual contact
436 – What is the chief extracellular electrolyte?
a- sodium
b- potassium
c- hydrogen
d- calcium
437 – the presence of S3 heart sounds is associated with:
a- cardiac tamponade
b- aortic aneurysm
c- bundle branch block
d- congestive heart failure
438 – The S1 heart sound is caused by closure of the:
a- tricuspid valve and aortic valve
b- semilunar valves
c- mitral valve and pulmonic valve
d- atriventricle valves
439 – A patient who is hyperventilation may have which acid-base condition?
a- respiratory alkalosis
b- respiratory acidosis
c- metabolic acidosis
d- metabolic alkalosis
440 – What heart valve prevents the backflow of ***** into the right atrium?
a- tricuspid valve
b- mitral valve
c- bicuspid valve
d- aortic valve