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2006
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441 – Airway obstruction can be caused by:
a- lateral extension b- dorsal flexion c- ventral flexion d- ventral extension 442 – What is the action of insulin? a- stimulates alpha receptors b- produces glucagon c- transfers glucose into cell d- produces hemolysis of RBCs 443 – Which drug is contraindicated in asthma patients? a- diaitalis b- CaCl c- inderal d- ephinephrine 444 – Hetastarch, dextran, and salt-pooralbumin are examples of the group of solutions known as: a- hypotonics b- isotonics c- crystalloids d- colloids 445 – Which of the following factors does not affect the heart's stroke volume? a- preload b- contractile c- afterload d- heart rate 446 – The cation that play a major role in muscle contraction is: a- sodium b-calcium c- bicarbonate d- potassium 447 – How many times a day should a patient take a medicine prescribed as t.i.d? a- once b- twice c- three times d- four times 448 – Peripheral vascular resistance is dependent on which three factors? a- preload, afterload, contractile force b- stroke volume, contractile force, cardiac output. c- arterial constriction, capillary sphincters, venous capacitance d- vessel diameter, vessel length, fluid viscosity 449 – The universal recipient is ***** type: a- A b- B c- AB d- O 450 – shock is best defined as: a- an abnormal internal or external discharge of ***** b- the inability of the tissue to live without oxygen c- loss of ***** due to hemorrhage d- a state of inadequate tissue perfusion 451 – Pulse pressure is best defined as: a- the top number b- the pressure exerted on the ***** vessel walls during systole c- the difference between the systolic and diastolic ***** pressure d- the bottom number 452 – Orthostatic hypotension is best defined as: a- decreases in ***** pressure due a pelvic or other large bone fracture b- decrease in ***** pressure when m***ng from a supine to standing position c- decrease in ***** pressure secondary to hypertension d- decrease in ***** pressure secondary to hematochezia 453 – The arterial pulse point located on the posterior aspect of the patella, between the lateral ****eolus and the distal femur is called the: a- popliteal b- pedis dorsalis c- posterior tibialis d- nota sureum due to lack of stadium 454 – A 20 year old male fractured his leg one weak ago. He has taken aspirin for pain. He gets up and becomes short of breath . He probably suffered a(n) a- pulmonary embolism b- thrombosis c- angina attack d- acute MI 455 – A drug with beta effects will cause: a- vasoconstriction b- bronchoconstriction c- increased heart rate d- none of the above 456 – Which area reflects the central venous pressure? a- radial artery b- pulmonary artery c- right atrium d- aorta 457 – When section of bone are crushed and fragmented it is called: a- a transverse fracture b- a comminuted fracture c- an impacted fracture d- a greenstick fracture 458 – Paralysis of one side of the body is called: a- hemiplegia b- paraplegia c- paresis d- quadriplegia 459 – The top of the heart is known as the: a- base b- pericardium c- apex d- arch 460 – ***** is pumped to the systemic circulation from which chamber? a- left atria b- left ventricle c- right ventricle d- right atria 461 – Which of the following is the dominant pacemaker of the heart? a- SA node b- AV node c- purkinje system d- AV junction 462 – The P wave of the normal EKG corresponds to which of the following phenomenon? a- atrial depolarization b- s-A node firing c- atrial repolarization d- ventricular depolarization 463 – Which of the following is the origin of the drug lidocaine? a- plant b- synthetic c- animal d- mineral 464 – What is the study of drug action upon the body called? a- pharmacokinetics b- synergism c- pharmacology d- pharmacodynamics 465 – Drug removal from the vascular system is done by the ……………… a- ******s b- liver c- lungs and intestinal tract d- all of the above 466 - …………….. is the combined action of two *****. It is much stronger than the effects of either one . a- synergism b- hypersensitivity c- untoward reaction d- idiosyncrasy 467 – Place the following metric prefixes in order from s****est to largest. 1 . deci2 . mili3. Micro,4. Kilo5 . centi a- 5,3,4,2,1 b- 3,2,5,1,4 c- 2,5,3,4,1 d-2,3,5,,1,4 468 – What drug blocks the action of the sympathetic nervous system ? a- dopaminerolytic b- vagalytic c- sympatholytic d- parasympathomimrtic 469 – The name Narcan is an example of which of the following? a- official name b- chemical name c- beneric name d- trade name 470 – the second stage of labor begins when the: a- amniotic sac rupture b- placenta c- baby moves into the birth canal d- cervix starts to dilate 471 – The muscular organ that protects this fetus is called the : a- uterus b- funds c- umbilicus d- placenta 472 – A premature baby is one that is less than 5.5 lbs or born before the …………..month. a- 8th b- 7th c- 9th d- 6th 473 – An APGAR score of 0 to 3 represents ……………distress a- moderate b- mild c- no d- severe 474 – If after cutting the umbilical cord fetal bleeding continues, you should: a- transport immediately b- reclamp the cord c- apply another tie or clamp d- untie the cord 475 – When the placenta separates from the uterine wall before delivery is called: a- abruptio placenta b- endometriosis c- post partum hemorrhage d- placenta previa 476 – In an ectopic pregnancy, the: a- egg is not implanted at all b- uterus does not expand adequately to hold the detus c- uterus does not have sufficient nutrient to sustain pregnancy d- egg is implanted outside the uterus 477 – Normal headfirst birth is called …………….delivery. a- ectopic b- prolapsed c- cephalic d- breech 478 – To assist in delivering the baby's upper shoulder, you should a- support the baby's head b- pull on baby's head c- guide the baby's head upward d- guide the baby's head downward 479 – The first clamp placed on the umbilical cord should be ………….inches from the baby. a- 12 b- 5 c- 10 d- 2 480 – Uncontrolled diabetes may lead to: a- metabolic shock b- neurogenic shock c- anaphylactic shock d- psychogenic shock 481 – An example of psychogenic shock is: a- stroke b- simple fainting c- paranoia d- spinal cord 482 – Respiratory shock is associated with all of the following except : a- severe ***** loss b- chest trauma c- spinal injury d- airway obstruction 483 – An early indicator of shock may be: a- dry skin b- constricted pupils c- decrease in pulse d- restlessness and anxiety 484 – Hypovolemic shock in an adult may result from a loss of : a- 2 cups of ***** b- I pint of ***** c- 2 units of ***** d- 500 cc of ***** 485 – The vital signs of a patient in shock should ideally by checked: a- every 20 minutes b- every 15 minutes c- every 5 minutes d- every 10 minutes 486 – Which of the following fractures would be expected to account for the greatest ***** loss? a- humerus b- pelvis c- facial d- femur 487 – Which of the following steps in emergency care should be taken first: a- treat for shock b- open and maintain c- control severe bleeding d- re-establish 488 – Treatment for shock would *******: a- administering low concentration oxygen b- giving the patient water to drink c- letting the patient walk to improve circulation d- none of the above 489 – A fracture producing deforming of a limb would be considered: a- nondisplaced b- complicated c- displaced d- rotated 490 – A grating sound or sensation noted when broken ends of bones rub together is known as: a- deformity b- costal grating c- crepitus d- epiphyses 491 – signs of an underlying fracture may *******: a- deformity b- swelling and dis******** c- lose of use d- all of the above 492 – Paralysis of the diaphragm may result from spinal injuries at the level of: a- lumber vertebrate 1-3 b- cervical vertebrate 3-5 c- cervical vertebrate 6-7 d- thoracic vertebrate2-5 493 – Using the rule of Nines, estimate the BSA burned a 2 year old pulled a pan of boiling liquid off from the stove and burned his entire head (front and back ) and the anterior portion of the chest : a- 36% b- 42% c- 18% d- 27% 494 – an infant with one leg burned on both sides has what percent of body burned ? a- 12% b- 13.5% c- 18 % d-9% 495 – Theophylline and theo-dur are both : a- ipecac liquid b- atropine c- ipecac syrup d- activated charcoal 496 – In tension pneumothorax the patient has : a- over inflation of the lung b- tracheal deviation toward affected side c- tracheal deviation away from affected side d- rupture spleen 497 – Ischemia is defined as : a- lack of oxygen b- deficient ***** supply c- lack of Co2 to the cells d- deficient iron supply 498 – A patient with history of seizures is most likely to take which medications: a- theo-dur and lanoxin b- lasix and lanoxin c- inderal and digitalis d- dilantin and phenobarbitol 499 – The most common causes of airway obstruction in the unconscious victim of an unwitnessed collapse: a- mucous b- food c- dentures d- tongue 500 – The term that which describes normal respiration is: a- eupnea b- dyspnea c- bradypnea d- orthopnea 501 – The death which occurs at the moment the heart stops is: a- biological death b- clinical death c- irreversible death d- DRT 502 – What is the name for alveolar collapse? a- pulmonary edema b- tension pneumothorax c- atelectasis d- pneumonia 503 – Insulin is secreted by the : a- gall bladder b- adrenal gland c- islets of Langerhans d- superior testiness 504 – What is the primary drug given to correct ventricular fibrillation? a- lasix b- inderal c- atropine d- lidocaine 505 – The fluid portion of the ***** is the : a- leukocyte b- albumin c- plasma d- erythrocyte 506 – Which of the following is a result of a serious insulin deficit? a- respiratory acidosis b- respiratory alkalosis c- metabolic acidosis d- metabolic alkalosis 507 – Stimulation of the beta receptors causes: a- decreased cardiac oxygen consumption b- increased heart rate and force of contraction c- bronchial construction and tachycardia d- increased vascular resistance and vasoconstriction 508 – A hypotonic solution is defined as a solution having : a- a concentration the same as that in the cells b- a concentration higher than that in the cells c- a concentration lower than that in the cells d- none of the above adequately defines the term 509 – Which of the following is primarily an extracellular electrolyte ? a- potassium b- calcium c- nitrogen d- sodium 510 – Injuries that result in partial tearing of a ligment are called : a- strains b- fractures c- dis******** d- sprains 511 – the most common cause of seizures in the child is: a- elevate temperature b- bronchitis c- inadequate tissue perfusion d- ventricular fibrillation 512 – 23 year old male has a history of seizures . You find him having recurrent seizures without return to consciousness. His color is poor and he is suffering arrhythmias . The patient is suffering from: a- status epilepticus b- focal motor seizures c- petit mal seizures d- marital distress 513 – which is the correct order of division in the respiratory tree, m***ng from the mouth towards the lungs? a- trachea, larynx, carina, bronchioles, bronchi b- bronchia, larynx, carina, trachea, bronchioles c- larynx, trachea, carina, bronchi, bronchioles d- bronchi, larynx, carina, bronchioles, trachea 514 – The lungs are covered by the: a- visceral pleura b- parenchyma c- parietal pleura d- none of the above 515 – The exchange of gases between red ***** cells and body tissue is called: a-pulmonary respiration b- cellular respiration c- aceration d- ventilation 516 – In normal respiration, the size of the thoracic cavity can be made larger by contraction the diaphragm and the: a- celtoid muscles b- intercostal muscles c- strap muscles d- abdominal muscles 517 – The average volume of gas inhaled in one respiratory cycle is called the: a- aveolar volume b- minute volume c- functional reserve capacity d- tidal volume 518 - Abdominal breathing is a sign of inadequate breathing in adult. a- true b- false 519 - Head, neck, or spinal injury should be suspected in any unconscious trauma patient. a- true b- false 520 – The head- tilt, chain-lift maneuver should be used to open the airway of a patient with a suspected neck injury. a- true b- false 521 – When using the head –tilt , chain-lift maneuver to open patient's airway, place your fingertips on the bony part of the chin, not the soft tissues under the lower jaw. a- true b- false 522 – Non breathing adult patients should be ventilated at a rate of 12 times per minute. a- true b- false 523 – Cyanosis is the term used to describe a blue or gray skin color. a- true b- false 524 – The cause of a trauma patient's problem is called the: a- mechanism of injury b- pathology c- nature of illness d- diagnosis 525 – The normal respiratory rate, or breaths per minute, for adult at rest is: a- 5-10 b- 18-28 c- 12-20 d- 25-30 526 – Gravity m***ng the tongue into the posterior pharynx of an unresponsive patient may cause: a- snoring b- stridor c- groaning d- crowing 527 – The "U" in AVPU stands for a- unresponsive b- unconscious c- unobtainable d- uncoherent 528 – The normal number of heartbeats per minute in an adult is: a-100-120 b-40-60 c-80-100 d- 60-100 529 – A condition sometimes caused by sympathetic nervous system stimulation due to pain or shock is: a- bradycardia b- hemothorax c- stridor d- tachycardia 530 – A yellowish coloration of the skin is called: a- pallor b- jaundice c- ecchymosis d- erythema 531 – The accumulation of fluid within the abdominal cavity often associated with right heart failure or cirrhosis of the liver is called: a- ascites b- edema c- distention d- swelling 532 – The different between systolic and diastolic ***** pressure readings is referred to as the: a- hematocrit b- pulse pressure c- pleural effusion d- Biot's response 533 – The "L" in the AMPLE mnemonic stands for: a- last eaten b- latent problem c- leading symptom d- length of duration of the problems 534 – Signs and symptoms of asthma typically *******: a- aphasia b- decreased pulse rate c- chest pain d- wheezing sounds 535 – The skin of a hypoglycemic patient is often: a- cold and clammy b- cyanotic c- warm and dry d- red 536 – The pancrease produces a hormone called: a- glucose b- progesterone c- insulin d- pancreatitits |
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